Daily Current Affairs UPSC: News Based MCQs Quiz | 6th June 2025

Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Scheme is focused on Zero Emission Vehicles (ZEVs) i.e. Battery Electric Vehicle and Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle. 

Statement 2 is correct: PLI-Auto Scheme envisages to overcome the cost disabilities to the industry for manufacturing and boost domestic manufacturing of Advanced Automotive Technology (AAT) products in India and functions under the ministry of heavy industries.

Additional Information

The Union Cabinet approved the PLI Scheme for Automobile & Auto Components on 15.09.2021 with budgetary outlay of ₹25,938 crore. PLI-Auto Scheme envisages to overcome the cost disabilities to the industry for manufacturing and boost domestic manufacturing of Advanced Automotive Technology (AAT) products in India. 

The incentive structure is to encourage industry to make fresh investments for indigenous manufacturing of AAT products and create additional jobs. PLI scheme for the auto sector is being implemented as per the approved guidelines.

The scheme offers financial incentives to boost domestic manufacturing of Advanced Automotive Technology products and attract investments in the automotive manufacturing value chain. 

Prime objectives of the scheme include overcoming cost disabilities, creating economies of scale, generating employment, building a robust supply chain in areas of Advanced Automotive Technology products and facilitating the Automobile Industry to move up the value chain into higher value added products.

The Scheme is focused on Zero Emission Vehicles (ZEVs) i.e. Battery Electric Vehicle and Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle.

Answer: (A) 1 Only

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Washington Treaty – or North Atlantic Treaty – forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization – or NATO.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Treaty was made valid for a 10-year period, after which the Treaty could be reviewed (Article 12); and only after the Treaty had been in force for 20 years could a member withdraw from the Organization (Article 13).

Additional Information

The Treaty was signed in Washington D.C. on 4 April 1949 by 12 founding members.

The Treaty derives its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which reaffirms the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defence.

Collective defence is at the heart of the Treaty and is enshrined in Article 5. It commits members to protect each other and sets a spirit of solidarity within the Alliance.

The Treaty is short – containing only 14 articles – and provides for in-built flexibility on all fronts.

Despite the changing security environment, the original Treaty has never had to be modified and each Ally has the possibility to implement the text in accordance with its capabilities and circumstances.

The negotiating countries disagreed on how long the Treaty should last. Some countries favoured a long-term agreement that would set the initial duration at 20 years, while others feared that anything beyond 10 years would be seen as an unnecessary extension of the war effort. Finally, at the insistence of Portugal, the Treaty was made valid for a 10-year period, after which the Treaty could be reviewed (Article 12); and only after the Treaty had been in force for 20 years could a member withdraw from the Organization (Article 13). To date, these two provisions have never been used, i.e., the Treaty has never been reviewed nor a member withdrawn from the Organization.

Member Nations of NATO

Answer: (B) 2 only

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: An Act to consolidate and amend the laws relating to reorganisation and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals in a time bound manner for maximisation of value of assets of such persons, to promote entrepreneurship, availability of credit and balance the interests of all the stakeholders including alteration in the order of priority of payment of Government dues and to establish an Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the current provisions, 330 days limit has been allowed to find a resolution for the company admitted into the insolvency process. If the company fails to find the solution, it goes into liquidation.

Additional Information:

The IBC, enacted in 2016, introduced a time-bound mechanism shifting control from debtors to creditors, with a 330-day limit to resolve insolvency cases.

It has changed the underlying credit culture by injecting discipline in credit allocation, prompting early action by borrowers, and reducing gross Non performingAssets from 11.2% 2018) to 2.8% 2024).

Despite rescuing companies and emerging as the dominant recovery route, the IBC faces judicial delays, post-resolution uncertainty, and concerns over handling new-age business models.

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Coromandel coast in India is one of the most bewitching coastal areas in the world. There’s a lot to see here and a whole lot more to dive into and experience for yourself. Of the lot, the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park has a very significant position. The first marine biosphere reserve in South Asia, the Mannar marine park is also one of the richest regions on Earth in terms of biodiversity. 

Comprising 21 islands in total, the Mannar marine park includes estuaries, beaches and mudflats that make this region amazingly beautiful. Also a part of this biosphere are marine components including algae communities, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves. 

Statement 2 is correct:  Spread across an area of 560 sq.kms., the biosphere covers the coasts of Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli, Rameswaram and Kanyakumari. Home to an affluent diversity of aquatic plants and animals, the national park has identified the presence of around 3600 plant and animal species. These even include endangered species including the sea cow and 6 mangrove species. One can find five species of turtles and several other marine species like dolphins, whales, sea cucumber and dugongs. 

The national park also includes 11 species of seagrass and 117 species of hard coral. The coral reefs in this area are stunningly beautiful and have often been referred to as the ‘underwater tropical rainforest’. Given all this, there is no wonder this area is also a favourite among regional and international travellers. Glass bottom boats are employed to take tourists down to watch these breathtaking visuals.

Answer: (A) One only

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: NBFCs do not function as a normal bank. They can only offer loans and advances but cannot accept principal deposits or deposits as one can in the banks.

Non-Banking Financial Companies – A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 or Companies Act, 2013, and engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, etc., as their principal business, but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. A non-banking institution which is a company and has the principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions or in any other manner, is also a non-banking financial company (Residuary non-banking company).

Statement 2 is incorrect: For an IPO, the company’s minimum profits must be at least Rs 15 crores in the last 3 out of 5 consecutive years.

In India, SEBI has mandated that companies need to meet the following criteria before approaching the public for funds:

The company must have net tangible assets of at least Rs 3 crore and a net worth of Rs 1 crore in each of the preceding three full years.

The company must have a minimum average pre-tax profit of Rs 15 crore in at least three of the immediately preceding five years.

Statement 3 is correct: Overdraft facilities of the RBI are short term loans offered to the commercial banks and the government as ways and means of advances. The interest rates are high which in return acts as a profitable deal for the RBI

Answer: (B) Statement 1 is correct

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: All five permanent members have exercised the right of veto at one time or another. If a permanent member does not fully agree with a proposed resolution but does not wish to cast a veto, it may choose to abstain, thus allowing the resolution to be adopted if it obtains the required number of nine favourable votes.

The Right to Veto –The creators of the United Nations Charter conceived that five countries — China, France, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) [which was succeeded in 1990 by the Russian Federation], the United Kingdom and the United States —, because of their key roles in the establishment of the United Nations, would continue to play important roles in the maintenance of international peace and security.

They were granted the special status of Permanent Member States at the Security Council, along with a special voting power known as the “right to veto”. It was agreed by the drafters that if any one of the five permanent members cast a negative vote in the 15-member Security Council, the resolution or decision would not be approved.

All five permanent members have exercised the right of veto at one time or another. If a permanent member does not fully agree with a proposed resolution but does not wish to cast a veto, it may choose to abstain, thus allowing the resolution to be adopted if it obtains the required number of nine favourable votes.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 27 of the UN Charter states that:

1. Each member of the Security Council shall have one vote.
2. Decisions of the Security Council on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members.
3. Decisions of the Security Council on all other matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members; provided that, in decisions under Chapter VI, and under paragraph 3 of Article 52, a party to a dispute shall abstain from voting.

Answer: (D) None of the pairs are correctly matched

Detailed Explanation

Answer: (A) 1 only

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Brahmaputra Valley has an average width of about 80 Km. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: The main river of the valley, Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers in the world and rank fifth with respect to its average discharge. 

Additional information

The river originates from the Kailash ranges of Himalayas at an elevation of 5300 M. After flowing through Tibet it enters India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Assam and Bangladesh before it joins Bay of Bengal.

The tributaries namely Subansiri, Ronganadi, Dikrong, Buroi, Borgong, Jiabharali, Dhansiri (North) Puthimari, Manas, Beki, Aie, Sonkosh are the main tributaries on the North while the Noadehing, Buridehing, Desang, Dikhow, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri (South), Kopilli, Kulsi, Krishnai, Dhdhnoi, Jinjiran are the main tributaries on the south bank of the river Brahmaputra.

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Detailed Explanation

The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 15, 2019, with the ambitious goal of providing tap water supply to every rural household by 2024. 

Statement 1is correct: Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain – Recognizing the importance of sustainable water management, the Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain (JSA: CTR) campaign was launched in 2019, focusing on water conservation through people’s participation. 

Statement 2 is correct: In 2023, the campaign emphasized ‘Source Sustainability for Drinking Water,’ and in 2024, it was implemented with the theme ‘Nari Shakti se Jal Shakti,’ highlighting the crucial role of women in water conservation.

Objectives

The broad objectives of the Jal Jeevan Mission include:

Providing Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household.

Prioritizing FHTC provision in quality-affected areas, drought-prone regions, desert areas, and Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) villages.

Ensuring functional tap connections in schools, Anganwadi centers, gram panchayat buildings, health and wellness centers, and community buildings.

Monitoring the functionality of tap connections.

Promoting voluntary ownership among the local community through contributions in cash, kind, or labor (shramdaan).

Ensuring the sustainability of water supply systems, including water sources, infrastructure, and funding for regular operations and maintenance.

Empowering and developing human resources in the water sector, covering construction, plumbing, electrical work, water quality management, water treatment, catchment protection, and more.

Raising awareness about the significance of safe drinking water and involving stakeholders to make water everyone’s responsibility.

Answer: (B) Only two

Detailed Explanation

• Hematite is an ore that is used to obtain Iron.
• Galena is an ore that is used to obtain Lead.
• Cinnabar is an ore that is used to obtain Mercury.
• Bauxite is an ore that is used to obtain Aluminium.