Solved BPSC Previous Year Questions
For Prelims From 65th–69th BPSC

GS & CSAT

69th BPSC PYQ Prelims Solved GS & CSAT Questions

1. Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks?

1. Internet of Things

2. Edge Computing

3. Network Slicing

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

5G is the fifth generation of mobile network technology, offering significantly faster speeds, lower latency, and greater capacity than previous generations. It supports advanced applications such as IoT, augmented reality, and autonomous vehicles by providing high data rates and enabling seamless, real-time connectivity across diverse devices and services.
Internet of Things: The Internet of Things (IoT) connects devices for seamless data exchange and automation. 5G enhances IoT by offering ultra-low latency, high bandwidth, and massive device connectivity, enabling real-time communication and large-scale deployments. This synergy supports advanced applications like smart cities, autonomous vehicles, and industrial automation.
Edge Computing: Edge computing processes data near its source, reducing latency and bandwidth use. It complements 5G by enabling ultra-low latency and high-speed data transfer, crucial for real-time applications.
Network Slicing: Network slicing allows 5G networks to create multiple virtual networks on a single physical infrastructure, each optimized for different applications. Hence (D) is correct option.

2. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(Space Mission) (Exploration)

a. Cassini- Huygens 1. Jupiter

b. Juno 2. Saturn and its rings

c. Artemis 3. Venus

d. VERITAS 4. Human Space- flight-Moon to Mars

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. a b c d

2 1 4 3

B. a b c d

3 1 4 2

C. a b c d

2 3 4 1

D. a b c d

3 1 2 4

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Cassini Huygens matches Saturn and its rings, because it is a space research mission by NASA, ESA & ISA to send a space probe to study the planet Saturn & its system.
Juno matches withJupiter. It is a mission, designed to improve our understanding of the Solar System’s beginnings by revealing the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
Artemis matches withHuman Space-Flight-Moon to Mars, because Artemis is a NASA mission that will land the 1st Woman and first Person of Color on the Moon using innovative technology.
VERITAS matches withVenus, because VERITAS Mission is for studies of the surface and interior of Venus with a powerful new generation of Scientific tools.
Hence (A) is the correct option.

3. Match List–I with List–II:

List—I List—II

(Cloth) (Origin)

a. Linen 1. Coconut plant

b. Coir 2. Flax plant

c. Mohair 3. Feathers of duck and geese

d. Down 4. Angora goat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. a b c d

1 3 2 4

B. a b c d

4 3 1 2

C. a b c d

2 1 4 3

D. a b c d

4 1 3 2

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Linen is derived from the flax plant (Linum usitatissimum). The fibers from the plant’s stalks are processed to produce linen fabric, known for its strength, durability, and natural luster.
Coir is derived from the husk of the coconut (Cocos nucifera). This fibrous material is extracted from the outer shell of the coconut and is commonly used for making ropes, mats, and other products due to its durability and water resistance.
Mohair comes from the hair of the Angora goat, not a plant. The fibers are known for their softness, sheen, and durability, making them ideal for high-quality textiles and garments.
Down is not derived from a plant; it is the soft, fluffy feathers found underneath the feathers of ducks and geese. Down is prized for its insulating properties and is commonly used in bedding and outerwear for warmth and comfort.Hence, the option‘C’ is correct.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm—Taenia solium, Taeniasaginata and Taeniaasiatica.

2. When cysts develop in the brain, the condition is referred to as neurocysticercosis (NCC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Taeniasis is an infection caused by tapeworms, Taeniasolium, Taenia saginata and Taenia asiatica, acquired from undercooked beef or pork. Symptoms include abdominal pain and weight loss, but can be asymptomatic. Diagnosis is via stool tests, and treatment involves antiparasitic medications. Prevention includes cooking meat thoroughly and maintaining good hygiene.
Neurocysticercosis is a parasitic infection of the brain caused by the larval stage of the tapeworm Taenia solium, which is commonly found in pigs. It occurs when humans ingest the eggs of the tapeworm, which then hatch and migrate to the brain, forming cysts. Symptoms can vary widely, including headaches, seizures, and neurological deficits. Treatment typically involves anti-parasitic medications and, in some cases, surgery. Prevention focuses on proper sanitation and cooking pork thoroughly.Hence, the option ‘C’ is correct.

5. Which of the following are computer languages?

1. Cobra

2. Python

3. Squirrel

4. Java

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 3 and 4

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Cobra: A statically-typed programming language combining features from Python, C#, and Ruby. It emphasizes clear syntax, strong typing, and metaprogramming with optional static typing, aiming for both readability and performance.
Python: A high-level, interpreted language renowned for its simplicity and readability. It supports multiple programming paradigms, including procedural, object-oriented, and functional programming, making it versatile for web development, data science, and automation.
Squirrel: A high-level, dynamically-typed language designed for embedded systems, with a syntax similar to C and Python. It features automatic memory management and is lightweight for efficient scripting.
Java: An object-oriented language known for its portability across platforms via the Java Virtual Machine (JVM). It is widely used in enterprise environments, web applications, and Android development due to its robustness and scalability.Hence allfour being computer languages, (D) isthe correct option.

6. What is the full form of GPTin ChatGPT, recently seen inthe news?

(A) Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase

(B) GUID Partition Table

(D) Generative Pre-Trained Transformer

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

GPTstands for Generative Pre-trained Transformer. It is an advanced AI model developed by OpenAI that generates human-like text based on input prompts. Hence (D) is the correct option.
GPT uses deep learning to understand and produce natural language, making it useful for tasks like text generation, translation, and conversational agents.

7. Which of the following are not the tastes of the tongue?

1. Sweet

2. Bitter

3. Salty

4. Spicy

5. Umami

6. Sour

7. Pungent

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 2, 5 and 7

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 3 and 6

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Tongue of human being has different types of papillae associated with tastebuds and are responsible for detecting the tastes like –
Sweet,
Bitter,
Salty,
Umami and
Sour.
They do not detect the ‘Spicy’ taste (Option-4)and the ‘Pungent’ (Option-7) which is associated with smell. Hence option ‘C’ is correct

8. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Anorexia: Sleep disorder

2. Insomnia: Eating disorder

3. Dyspnoea: Shortness of breath

4. Anosmia: Partial or full loss of smell

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Anorexia: Anorexia is a medical condition characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to severe restriction of food intake and extreme weight loss. It can have serious physical and psychological consequences and is often associated with eating disorders.
Insomnia: Insomnia is a sleep disorder marked by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or experiencing non-restorative sleep. It can lead to daytime fatigue, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Causes can range from stress and anxiety to medical conditions and lifestyle factors.
Dyspnoea: Dyspnoea refers to shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. It can be caused by respiratory or cardiovascular issues, such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or heart failure.
Anosmia: Anosmia is the loss or absence of the sense of smell. It can result from nasal congestion, infections, neurological disorders, or head trauma. Anosmia can affect taste and quality of life. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.

9. In the universe, what are pulsars?

(A) A group of stars

(B) Rotating neutron stars

(D) Radio waves emitted bya star

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars with intense magnetic fields that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation. As they spin, these beams sweep across space, creating pulses of radiation detectable as regular, precise signals. Pulsars are remnants of supernova explosions and serve as cosmic laboratories for studying extreme physics.Hence option ‘B’ is correct

10. In the context of lab-grown diamonds (LGDs), what is used as a diamond seed?

(A) White sapphire

(B) Moissanite

(D) Cubic zirconia (CZ)

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In lab-grown diamonds (LGDs), a very thin slice (like a hair) of Graphite is used as a diamond seed. Hence, option ‘C’ is correct.
A diamond seed is a small, pre-existing diamond crystal or a fragment used to initiate the growth process. This seed acts as a template, allowing carbon atoms to crystallize around it under high pressure and temperature, forming a larger diamond.

11. What is the ‘fibre’ used to make bulletproof jackets?

(A) Nylon

(B) Terylene

(D) Kevlar

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Bulletproof jackets are commonly made from Kevlar, a strong synthetic fiber known for its high tensile strength and durability. Hence option ‘D’ is correct.
Kevlar is a type of aramid fiber that is lightweight and resistant to impact and abrasion, providing effective protection against ballistic threats when woven into layers.

12. What is/are the full form(s)of HMX?

1. High Melting Explosive

2. High-Density MonoatomicXenon

3. Hedge Monetizing Xenocurrency

4. Her Majesty’s Explosive

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

HMX stands for High Melting Explosive. It is a powerful and stable explosive compound used in military and industrial applications.

Hence option ‘C’ is correct.

Chemically known asCyclonite or Octogen, HMX is used in explosives due to its high energy and detonation velocity.

13. What is the name of Tesla’shumanoid robot launched inOctober 2022?

(A) Sophia

(B) Atlas

(D) Optimus

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Tesla’s humanoid robot, Optimus, is designed to perform various tasks in environments like factories and homes. Hence option ‘D’ is correct.
Announced by Tesla, it aims to assist with repetitive or dangerous jobs. Equipped with advanced AI and machine learning, Optimus is built for flexibility, mobility, and human-like interaction.

14. What is the ‘Manhattan Project’?

(A) A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons

(B) One of the largest art auctions of the world

(D) A famous theme park

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Manhattan Project was a U.S. research and development project during World War II (1942-1946) that developed the first nuclear weapons. Hence option ‘A’ is correct.

It involved over 130,000 people and cost approximately $2 billion (around $30 billion today). Key figures included J. Robert Oppenheimer and scientists like Enrico Fermi and Richard Feynman.

15. The image formed by concavemirror is real, inverted and ofthe same size as that of the object. The position of the object should be

(A) at the focus

(B) at the centre of curvature

(D) beyond the centre of curvature

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

For a concave mirror, if the image formed is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object, the object must be positioned at the center of curvature of the mirror. In concave mirrors, the center of curvature is located at a distance equal to the radius of curvature from the mirror. At this position, the object and its image are both the same size and inverted.

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Hence option ‘B’ is correct.

16. A photoelectric cell is a device which

(A) converts light energy into electric energy

(B) converts electric energy into light energy

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

A photoelectric cell is a device that converts light energy into electrical energy. When light strikes the cell, it releases electrons from a photosensitive material, generating an electric current. Hence option ‘A’ is correct.
This principle is used in various applications, including light sensors, solar panels, and automatic lighting systems.

17. The amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent is known as _____ in Chemistry.

(A) composition of solute

(B) concentration of solvent

(D) concentration of solution

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution is known as ‘concentration of solution’ in chemistry. Hence option ‘D’ is correct.

It is typically expressed in units such as molarity (moles per liter), molality (moles per kilogram), or percent concentration (mass or volume percent).

18. How do COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response?

(A) By introducing liveattenuated SARS-CoV-2virus

(B) By introducing a realSARS-CoV-2 virus

(D) By introducing antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 virus

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Answer option (A) –Covaxin falls under this category i.e. Inactivated or attenuated live virus

Answer option (C)- Covishield apparently falls under this category but it is a viral vector vaccine that uses adenovirus found in Chimpanzees, ChAD0x1 and not SARS-CoV-2 virus.

Other options are obviously incorrect. So, the correct answer is A.

19. Which of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity?

(A) Salted water

(B) Orange juice

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

A bad conductor of electricity is a material that poorly allows the flow of electric current due to high resistance. Examples include rubber and glass, which inhibit electron movement and reduce electrical conductivity.
In salt water, the water pulls apartsodium & chlorine ions so that it becomes a good conductor because of the existence of these ions. In orange juice, as well as, lemon juice, that is acid containing H+ ions. These ions make a good conductor of electricity. Hence, ‘D’ is the correct option.

20. The DNA double helix structure was discovered by

(A) James Watson and FrancisCrick

(B) Rosalind Franklin andMaurice Wilkins

(D) Gregor Mendel

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The DNA double helix structure was discovered by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953, with significant contributions from Rosalind Franklin. Hence, ‘A’ is the correct option.
It consists of two intertwined strands forming a spiral staircase, with base pairs (adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine) holding the strands together, encoding genetic information. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1962 was awarded to James Watson and Francis Crick.

21. Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon would

(A) have different accelerations

(B) undergo a change in their inertia

(D) experience forces of same magnitude

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

On the Moon, two objects with different masses falling freely experience the same acceleration due to gravity, 𝑔m ≈1.63m/s². This is because the acceleration due to gravity is independent of mass. The formula for the distance fallen is 𝑑 =1/2𝑔_𝑚𝑡², where ‘d’ is the distance and ‘t’ is the time. Thus, both objects will fall at the same rate and hit the ground simultaneously if dropped from the same height. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

22. How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?

(A) By introducing a weakened or inactivated virus into the body

(B) By directly attacking and destroying pathogens in the body

(D) By entering directly into the cells and enabling them to create spike proteins

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Vector vaccines use a harmless virus (vector), containing nucleic acid of disease-causing virus, to deliver genetic instructions for producing a pathogen’s antigen into cells, triggering an immune response that provides protection against the disease without causing it. Hence ‘C’ is the correct option.

23. The process that continually adds new crust is

(A) subduction

(B) earthquake

(D) convection

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The process that continually adds new crust is seafloor spreading. It occurs at mid-ocean ridges where tectonic plates diverge, allowing magma to rise, cool, and form new oceanic crust.
Subduction is the process where one tectonic plate sinks beneath another into the Earth’s mantle, often causing volcanic activity and earthquakes.
An earthquake is the shaking of the Earth’s surface due to the sudden release of energy from the movement of tectonic plates.
Convection is the movement of heat through fluids (like magma) caused by the rising of hotter, less dense material and the sinking of cooler, denser material, driving tectonic plate motion. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

24. The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are inconstant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is called

(A) the theory of continental drift

(B) the theory of Pangaea

(D) the theory of plateboundaries

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is called plate tectonics. It explains that the Earth’s crust is divided into several large and small plates that move slowly over the semi-fluid mantle beneath them, driven by mantle convection and other geological forces.
Continental Driftposits that continents were once joined in a single supercontinent and have since drifted apart.
Pangaeais the name given to this ancient supercontinent, which existed about 335 million years ago. Plate Tectonics expands on this by explaining that Earth’s lithosphere is divided into plates that move slowly over the semi-fluid asthenosphere, driven by mantle convection.
Plate Boundaries refer to the edges where these plates interact, leading to geological phenomena like earthquakes, volcanic activity, and mountain-building. These boundaries are classified as divergent, convergent, or transform, depending on the nature of the interactions.

Hence option ‘C’ is correct.

25. What is the expanded form of the term ‘mRNA’ that has been widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?

(A) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid

(B) Mutant Ribonucleic Acid

(D) Mnemonic Ribonucleic Acid

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The expanded form of mRNA is messenger Ribonucleic Acid. It is a type of RNA that carries genetic instructions from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are synthesized. During pandemic mRNA is detected by RT-PCR for diagnosis of disease.

26. An AC current can be produced by?

(A) choke coil

(B) dynamo

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Dynamo acts both as a DC current generator as well as an AC current generator. Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.
A choke coil is an inductor used to block high-frequency AC while allowing low-frequency signals to pass, stabilizing current in electronic circuits.
A transformer changes AC voltage levels between circuits through electromagnetic induction, with primary and secondary coils to increase or decrease voltage as needed for efficient power distribution.

27. Current density is

(A) a scalar quantity

(B) a vector quantity

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Current density is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction. It represents not only the amount of current flowing per unit area but also the direction of the current flow. Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.

The vector nature of current density is crucial in describing how current flows through a conductor or across surfaces. The formula for current density is:

J= I/A

where Jis the current density vector, Iis the current vector, and A is the cross-sectional area vector. The direction of J aligns with the direction of the current flow, and its magnitude is proportional to the current per unit area.

28. What is the basis of the most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry?

(A) Pharmacological effect

(B) Molecular targets

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

In medical chemistry, classifying medications by molecular targets involves grouping drugs based on the specific biological molecules they interact with, like receptors, enzymes, or ion channels. This method reveals how drugs work, aids in understanding their effects, and guides therapeutic use and drug development. Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.

29. Which of the following slows down the reaction rate?

(A) Catalytic promoter

(B) Homogeneous catalyst

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Catalytic promoters, homogeneous catalysts, and heterogeneous catalysts all generally increase the reaction rate, not slow it down.
A catalytic promoter enhances the effectiveness of a catalyst, while homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysts both speed up reactions by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

So the correct answer is ‘D’.

30. Input and output nerves meet at

(A) liver

(B) central nervous system

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

In the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord, input nerves (sensory neurons) and output nerves (motor neurons) meet and communicate. Sensory nerves transmit information from the body to the CNS, where it is processed, and motor nerves carry responses from the CNS to muscles or glands. Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.
The liver processes nutrients, detoxifies harmful substances, and produces essential proteins. It plays a key role in metabolism and digestion.
The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients while removing waste products. Both organs are vital for overall health.

31. In the context of ‘Shipwreck Tourism’, shipwrecks in Indian waters have been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grande Island. Where are these locations?

(A) Off the coast of Goa

(B) Off the coast of Lakshadweep

(D) Off the coast of Odisha

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grande Island are located near the coast of Goa. They are known for their underwater attractions and is a popular spot for divers interested in exploring shipwrecks and marine life.
Each of these locations offers unique opportunities for shipwreck tourism, with varying levels of accessibility and underwater visibility. So the answer is ‘A’.

32. The G20 members represent

1. around 85% of the global GDP

2. about 50% of the global trade

3. about two-thirds of the world population

Which of the above statistics is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 1 and 3

(D) Only 1 and 2

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Around 85% of the global GDP: This is accurate. The G20 countries account for a significant portion of the world’s economic output.

About two-thirds of the world population: This is correct as well. The G20 members encompass a large portion of the global population.

They share about 50% of the global trade. Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.

33. Who is the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group?

(A) Sergei Shoigu

(B) Yevgeny Prigozhin

(D) Volodymyr Zelenskyy

Correct answer : DELETED

Explanation:

The Wagner Mercenary Group is a private military company known for its involvement in various global conflicts, including Ukraine and Syria. Founded by Yevgeny Prigozhin, a close ally of Vladimir Putin, it operates as a covert extension of Russian military interests, often linked to geopolitical and military objectives.
Yevgeny Prigozhin died on 23.08.2023 and this exam was held on 29.09.2023. So on the date of examination no one was the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group. Since no option is correct.

34. The Global Gender Gap Report is released by

(A) the World Bank

(B) the UN Women

(D) the UNDP

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Global Gender Gap Report, published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), assesses gender disparities across various dimensions including economic participation, educational attainment, health, and political empowerment.
The report provides valuable insights for policymakers, organizations, and advocates working to promote gender equality globally. So the answer is ‘A’.

35. Which one of the following statements regarding Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom is correct?

(A) She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.

(B) She reigned for 68 years and died at the age of 94 years.

(D) She reigned for 66 years and died at the age of 90 years.

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Queen Elizabeth II reigned for 70 years (1952-2022) and died at the age of 96 years (1926-2022). Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.

36. What was the theme of DefExpo– 2022, held in Gujarat?

(A) India : The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub

(B) Path to Pride

(D) Aatmanirbharta

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

DefExpo is a flagship biennial event of the Ministry of Defence, showcasing the land, naval, air as well as homeland security systems. Path to Pride was the theme of Def Expo. 2022 held in Gujarat. So the answer is ‘B’.

37. The three-day celebration of Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in which country?

(A) Chile

(B) Nepal

(D) Myanmar

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Thadingyut Festival, also known as the Lighting Festival, is a three-day festival in Myanmar that celebrates the end of Buddhist Lent.
It’s held on the full moon of the Burmese lunar month of Thadingyut, which usually falls in October in the Gregorian calendar. So, the answer is ‘D’.

38. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘White House’:

1. The address of the White House is 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue.

2. It is the official residence and workplace of the President of USA.

3. On November 1, 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building.

4. It is a symbol of American Democracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 3 and 4

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The address of the White House is 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue (not 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue).
It is the official residence and workplace of the President of the USA. On November 1, 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building. It is a symbol of American democracy. Hence answer ‘D’ is correct.

39. ‘Net Metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting

(A) the installation of CNG kits in motorcars

(B) the installation of water meters in urban households

(D) the use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

‘Net Metering’ is a billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers for the electricity they add to the grid. It allows individuals with solar panels to receive credit for the surplus energy they generate and feed back into the electrical grid. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

40. Match List–I with List–II:

List—I List—II

(Colour) (Combination)

a. Magenta 1. Green and blue

b. Teal 2. Red and blue

c. Mauve 3. Blue, green and white

d. Cyan 4. Blue, red and white

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d

2 3 4 1

(B) a b c d

2 4 3 1

4 2 1 3

(D) a b c d

3 4 2 1

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

a. Magenta – 2. Red and blue

b. Teal – 3. Blue, green and white

c. Mauve – 4. Blue, red, and white

d. Cyan – 1. Green and blue

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘A’.

41. What is the name of the deepsea submersible that imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage?

(A) Alvin

(B) Falcon

(D) Titan

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The deep-sea submersible that tragically imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage is named Titan. This incident occurred in June 2023, resulting in the loss of all five people aboard. So, the correct answer is ‘D’.

42. Match List–I with List–II:

List—I List—II

(Footwear/Fashion Accessory) (Description)

a. Beret 1. A type of men’s footwear

b. Stilettos 2. A type of sunglasses

c. Aviators 3. A type of hat

d. Chignon 4. A type of women’s footwear

e. Brogue 5. A type of hairstyle

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d e

3 2 1 4 5

(B) a b c d e

3 4 2 5 1

5 3 2 4 1

(D) a b c d e

1 2 3 4 5

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

a. Beret – 3. A type of hat

b. Stilettos – 4. A type of women’s footwear

c. Aviators – 2. A type of sunglasses

d. Chignon – 5. A type of hairstyle

e. Brogue – 1. A type of men’s footwear

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘B’.

43. Where did the former President of the USA give his interview recently?

(A) Rome

(B) Sarajevo

(D) Amsterdam

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Former President Barack Obama gave an interview in Athens. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

44. In the context of sports, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Flushing Meadows : French Open

2. Venus Rosewater Dish : Wimbledon Trophy (Women)

3. Roland Garros : US Open

4. Australian Open (Women) : Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Flushing Meadows: This is the location of the US Open, not the French Open.
Venus Rosewater Dish: This is the trophy awarded to the winner of the Wimbledon Women’s Singles.
Roland Garros: This is the location of the French Open, not the US Open.
Australian Open (Women): The trophy awarded to the winner of the Australian Open Women’s Singles is the Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup.

So, the correctly matched pairs are:

Venus Rosewater Dish – Wimbledon Trophy (Women)
Australian Open (Women) – Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘D’.

45. The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?

(A) 40

(B) 233

(D) 984

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Ministry of Home Affairs completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s 576 languages. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.
The Ministry of Home Affairs completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) to document and preserve India’s linguistic diversity, support policy-making, promote cultural heritage, and facilitate research. The survey aimed to catalog the country’s languages, including endangered ones, ensuring their recognition and protection.

46. Which State Government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action for the protection of vultures in India?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Sikkim

(D) Meghalaya

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Tamil Nadu launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC) to address the alarming decline in vulture populations. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.
The committee aims to implement conservation measures, promote vulture-friendly practices, and support national efforts to protect these vital scavengers, ensuring their survival and ecological balance.

47. Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys), one of the largest tortoise species in mainland Asia, were recently released into which National Park of India?

(A) Ntangki National Park

(B) Periyar National Park

(D) Khangchendzonga National Park

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys) juveniles were released into a protected area of Nagaland December 19, 2022, according to T Aochuba, director, Intanki National Park. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.

48. Which country has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?

(A) USA

(B) Australia

(D) Russia

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The USA has reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.
Arunachal Pradesh, a state in northeastern India, has a rich history shaped by diverse tribal cultures and strategic importance. Formerly a part of the North-East Frontier Agency, it was integrated into India in 1972 as a Union Territory and became a full-fledged state in 1987, playing a crucial role in regional geopolitics.

49. India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won a medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo?

(A) Gold

(B) Silver

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won the Gold medal in the Men’s 10 m Air Rifle event at the ISSF World Championship held in Cairo. His achievement marked a significant milestone in Indian shooting sports. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.
He hails from Maharashtra, India.

50. The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?

(A) Grade 6

(B) Grade 8

(D) Grade 12

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from Grade 6 onwards. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 was approved by the Union Cabinet of India on July 29, 2020. It represents the first major overhaul of the education system since the 1986 policy.
Key aspects include restructuring the school system into a 5+3+3+4 format, introducing vocational education from Grade 6, and establishing the National Educational Technology Forum.
The NEP aims to promote holistic, inclusive, and flexible education, enhancing both quality and accessibility.

51. India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which country?

(A) UAE

(B) Australia

(D) UK

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) between India and Australia, signed in April 2022, aims to enhance bilateral trade by reducing tariffs, increasing market access, and fostering economic cooperation. The agreement focuses on sectors like trade, investment, education, and technology, boosting economic ties between the two nations. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.

52. The Plain Language Act was passed by which of the following countries recently which requires Government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites?

(A) Australia

(B) Ireland

(D) Germany

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Plain Language Act was indeed passed by New Zealand. This legislation requires government officials to use clear and simple language in official documents and communications to ensure better understanding and accessibility for the public. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

53. Tillyardembi Fossils of the world’s first plant pollinators, called Tillyardembiids, were discovered recently in which country?

(A) Greece

(B) India

(D) China

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In March 2023, scientists discovered fossils of the world’s oldest known plant pollinators, called tillyardembiids, in Russia. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.
The fossils are estimated to be around 280 million years old and they were preserved with pollen on their bodies, which came from a narrow range of seed-producing, non-flowering plants called gymnosperms.

54. The ‘Lisbon Declaration’, which made headlines, is associated with the conservation of which entity?

(A) Air

(B) Mountains

(D) Freshwater glaciers

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The ‘Lisbon Declaration’ is associated with the conservation of the Oceans. This declaration emphasizes the need for global action to protect marine environments and ensure sustainable ocean management. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.
The Lisbon Declaration, adopted in 2023, emphasizes the urgent need for global cooperation to protect marine ecosystems.

55. Which of the following animals was not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilization?

(A) Bull

(B) Horse

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The people of the Indus Valley Civilization did not know the Horse. Evidence from archaeological findings suggests that while bulls and elephants were depicted and used, horses were not present in the Indus Valley sites. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.
The Indus Valley Civilization, flourishing around 2600 -1900 BCE in present-day Pakistan and northwest India, was one of the world’s earliest urban cultures. It featured advanced city planning, sophisticated drainage systems, and extensive trade networks. Major sites include Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, with a script still undeciphered.

56. Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

(A) Qutb Minar

(B) Red Fort

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

India Gate is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.
Qutb Minar and its Monuments were declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1993. This includes the Qutb Minar, Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Alai Darwaza, and other significant structures.
Red Fort was also declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2007. It was recognized for its outstanding architectural and historical significance, representing the Mughal Empire’s peak.

57. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of

(A) England

(B) Switzerland

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was primarily inspired by the Irish Constitution. These principles are guidelines for the state to follow when formulating policies and laws, aiming to establish social and economic justice. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, from Article 36 to Article 51. They are not legally enforceable but serve as a moral compass for the government.

58. Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in

(A) 1974

(B) 1975

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Sikkim became the 22nd state of India on May 16, 1975. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.
Sikkim held a referendum, where more than 97% of voters chose to merge with India. The Sikkim Parliament announced the king’s deposition and Sikkim’s merger with India and The President of India Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed gave his assent to the constitutional amendment making Sikkim a state.

59. Which among the following currencies is the costliest?

(A) Euro

(B) Pound Sterling

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The costliest currency among the given options can vary depending on the exchange rates at a specific time. However, generally speaking, the Pound Sterling is often considered one of the most valuable currencies in the world. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.

60. The Bihar Government has planned to make Bihar State ‘pollution free’ by reducing carbon emissions by which year?

(A) 2022

(B) 2024

(D) 2047

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

With the help of UNEP, the Bihar Government has planned to make Bihar as the „Pollution Free State by reducing carbon emissions by 2024. (According to BPSC.)

So, the correct answer is ‘B’.

61. In Indian art, the construction of ‘Stupa’, ‘Chaitya’ and ‘Vihara’ is related to which of the following?

(A) Ajivika sect

(B) Vaishnava sect

(D) Shaiva sect

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The construction of “Stupa,” “Chaitya,” and “Vihara” are integral parts of Buddhist architecture. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

Stupa: A dome-shaped monument typically containing relics of a Buddha or other important Buddhist figures.
Chaitya: A prayer hall or assembly hall, often featuring a central stupa.
Vihara: A monastery or residence for Buddhist monks.

These architectural elements are closely associated with the spread and practice of Buddhism in ancient India.

62. In the context of Indian handicrafts, what is ‘Sujini’ in Bihar?

(A) A type of glassware

(B) A metal craft

(D) A type of clay pottery

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Sujini is a unique type of embroidery practiced in Bihar, India. The correct answer is ‘C’.
Sujini involves stitching together layers of fabric using a running stitch technique to create intricate patterns and designs. The resulting fabric is often used to make quilts, wall hangings, and other decorative items. Sujini embroidery is known for its durability, intricate patterns, and vibrant colors.

63. Consider the following statements regarding the Vikramshila University in Bihar:

1. It was located in the present-day Banka district of Bihar.

2. It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty.

3. The ‘Vajrayana’ sect of Buddhism flourished here.

4. Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar and Philosophy were also taught here.

Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 4

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Vikramshila University was established by King Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty.
While Vikramshila University was indeed a significant educational center in ancient Bihar, it was not located in the present-day Banka district. It was actually situated near the modern-day town of Bhagalpur. Hence the option ‘C’ is correct.
The ‘Vajrayana’ sect of Buddhism flourished here. Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar, and Philosophy were also taught here.

64. Consider the following statements:

The arrival of Babur into India led to the

1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent

2. introduction of arch and dome in the region’s architecture

3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region

4. introduction of cannons in warfare

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Gunpowder was introduced to the Indian subcontinent much earlier than Babur’s arrival, and it was likely introduced by the Mongols in the 13th century. However, Babur is credited with popularizing gunpowder and artillery in India after his victory in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
The Delhi Sultanate introduced Islamic architectural features, including true domes and arches.
The Timurid dynasty was established in the Indian subcontinent by Babur, a descendant of Timur, when he invaded and conquered the region, effectively founding the Mughal Empire in 1526, marking the beginning of the Timurid dynasty in India; this is often considered the establishment of the Timurid dynasty in the subcontinent. He is credited with introducing cannons to India in the Battle of Panipat. Hence the option ‘C’ is correct.

65. Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?

(A) Calicut

(B) Surat

(D) Broach

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

During the Mughal period, the port of Surat was often referred to as “Babul Makka” or the “Gate of Makka” due to its significance as a major trading center and a gateway for Muslim pilgrims traveling to the holy city of Mecca. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.
Surat’s strategic location on the Arabian Sea and its well-developed infrastructure made it a thriving port city, attracting merchants from all over the world.

66. ‘Ashta Pradhan’ was a Council of Ministers

(A) in the Gupta administration

(B) in the Chola administration

(D) in the Vijayanagara administration

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Ashta Pradhan was a council of eight ministers that served as the cabinet of the Maratha Empire. The council was established in 1674 by the Maratha leader Shivaji. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

The council members were:

Peshwa: The senior member of the council who was in charge of general administration and held the state seal. The Peshwa was similar to a prime minister.
Amatya: The finance minister who was responsible for revenue matters.
Waqia-Navis: The minister, like a home minister, who kept track of the king’s daily activities.
Samant: The minister who deals with the outsiders.
Sachiv: The official who handled the king’s correspondence and seal.
Pandit Rao: The member who handled religious matters.
Sar-i-nabuat: Army affairs.
Nyayadhish: The member who decided legal matters.

The Ashta Pradhan is credited with implementing good governance practices and the success of military campaigns against the Mughal Empire.

67. The painting of ‘Bodhisattva Padmapani’ is located at

(A) Bagh

(B) Ellora

(D) Badami

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The painting of “Bodhisattva Padmapani” is a renowned fresco found in the Cave 17 of the Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra, India. So, the correct answer is ‘C’.
Dating back to the 5th century CE, this artwork is celebrated for its intricate detail and vibrant colors. The painting depicts Padmapani, a Bodhisattva who is a compassionate figure in Mahayana Buddhism, often associated with the lotus flower (padma). The fresco is part of the rich collection of Buddhist art that illustrates the spiritual and cultural life of ancient India.
Since 1983, Ajanta caves have been listed among the UNESCO World Heritage Sites of India, famous for its intricate cave paintings, which depict scenes from Buddhist mythology and daily life.

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Harsha.

2. Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II, also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya, who ruled the Gupta Empire from approximately 380 to 415 CE. His visit provides valuable historical insights into the Gupta period, particularly regarding Buddhist practices and the state of the Indian subcontinent during that era.
Hiuen Tsang (or Xuanzang) visited India during the reign of Emperor Harsha (Harshavardhana). Hiuen Tsang traveled to India from 629 to 645 CE, during Harsha’s rule, which lasted from around 606 to 647 CE. His detailed accounts provide valuable insights into the political, cultural, and religious life of India during the early 7th century.

Hence the option ‘D’ is correct.

69. Match List–I with List–II:

List—I List—II

a. Charaka 1. Mathematics

b. Brahmagupta 2. Medicine

c. Varahamihira 3. Playwright

d. Vishakhadatta 4. Astrology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d

2 1 4 3

(B) a b c d

1 2 3 4

3 2 4 1

(D) a b c d

1 4 3 2

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Charaka: Known for his contributions to Ayurveda and medicine.
Brahmagupta: A renowned mathematician and astronomer.
Varahamihira: An astronomer and astrologer.
Vishakhadatta: A playwright known for his work “Mudrarakshasa.”

So, the correct answer is ‘A’.

70. Who among the following is the Persian festival Nowruz in India?

(A) Firuz Shah Tughlaq

(B) Alauddin Khilji

(D) Iltutmish

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Balban, a prominent ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled Delhi from 1266AD to 1286AD, is credited with introducing the Persian festival of Nowruz to India.
He adopted many Persian customs and practices during his reign, including the celebration of Nowruz, which marked the Persian New Year. By adopting such cultural elements, Balban sought to strengthen his authority and establish a strong Persian influence in his kingdom.

So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

71. Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis made devotional religion popular in

(A) Northern India

(B) Southern India

(D) Western India

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis were influential religious figures and movements that flourished in Northern India. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.
They promoted devotional practices and emphasized personal spiritual experiences. Their teachings and practices contributed significantly to the popularity of devotional religion in the region.

72. Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Dispatch of 1854:

1. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies.

2. It laid stress on female education and vocational training.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 primarily focused on the introduction of English as the medium of instruction for higher studies. It aimed to create a unified educational system in India and prepare Indians for government service.
It laid emphasis on the importance of female education. And in 1882, the Indian Education Commission, led by Sir William Hunter, recommended establishing primary schools for girls, teacher-training institutions, and scholarships and prizes for girls.

Hence the option ‘C’ is correct.

73. The Maithili language started to develop during the reign of which of the following?

(A) Chero dynasty

(B) Oiniwar dynasty

(D) Pithipatis

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Karnat dynasty ruled from 1097 CE to 1324 CE and ruled in Tirhut or Mithila in Bihar state of Nepal and India. Nanya Deva was considered as the founder of Karnat or Karnata dynasty.
During their rule, the Maithili language flourished and gained prominence as the regional language. The Karnat kings patronized literature and culture, contributing to the development of Maithili literature and language.

So, the correct answer is ‘C’.

74. Which city served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period?

(A) Rajagriha

(B) Campa

(D) Pataliputra

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Rajagriha served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period. It was a strategic location surrounded by hills, providing natural protection. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.
Later, it was shifted to Pataliputra, near present-day Patna in India during the reign of Udayin.

75. Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act is/are correct?

1. It was enacted by Lord Lytton.

2. It came to be known as a ‘Gagging Act’.

3. The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Vernacular Press Act was introduced by Lord Lytton, the Viceroy of India.
The Act was widely criticized for its restrictive measures and was often referred to as a “Gagging Act” due to its censorship of the vernacular press.
The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon, Lytton’s successor as Viceroy, in response to public outcry and opposition to the restrictions imposed on the press.

Hence the option ‘D’ is correct.

The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was a restrictive law enacted by the British government in India. It aimed to control the vernacular press, which was gaining influence and criticizing British policies. The Act imposed censorship and restrictions on newspapers written in Indian languages, limiting their freedom of expression. It was widely criticized and eventually repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882.

76. Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 are correct?

1. It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances.

2. Provincial Governments were empowered to administer certain services.

3. It attempted to rectify existing inequality.

4. It focussed on the actual needs of the Provinces.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 was a significant step towards financial decentralization and local self-government in British India. Here are the main points of the Resolution:

Bifurcation of Central and Provincial finances: The Resolution marked the beginning of separating the finances of the Central government from those of the Provincial governments.
Empowerment of Provincial Governments: Provincial governments were granted more autonomy and responsibility for administering certain services, such as education, sanitation, and local public works.
Rectification of existing disparity: The Resolution aimed to address the existing financial disparity between the Central government and the Provinces, providing the Provinces with greater control over their resources.
Focus on actual needs of the Provinces: The Resolution emphasized that local interests, supervision, and care were necessary for successful management of funds allocated to Provincial governments.

Overall, Lord Mayo’s Resolution was an important step towards improving the governance of British India by decentralizing administrative and financial control, thus allowing for more responsive and effective provincial administration.

Hence the option ‘D’ is correct.

77. Nitisara, an early book of politics, was written by

(A) Kautilya

(B) Kamandaka

(D) None of them

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Nitisara is an early text on political theory, and it was written by an ancient Indian scholar Kamandaka. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.
Kamandaka work provides insights into statecraft, political ethics, and administrative principles in early Indian polity.

78. Futuhat-i-Alamgiriwas written by

(A) Ishwardas Nagar

(B) Bhimsen

(D) None of them

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The book Futuhat-i-Alamgiri was written by Ishwardas Nagar who was a Mughal officer in the district of Jodhpur for a long time. This work contains some significant events of the reign of Aurangzeb up to 1698. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.

79. According to a Chinese source, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to which of the following Gupta Kings for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?

(A) Chandragupta I

(B) Samudragupta

(D) None of them

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

According to Chinese sources, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to Samudragupta, a Gupta king, for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Bodh Gaya. Samudragupta granted permission. So, the correct answer is ‘B’.
The Gupta dynasty, which ruled from approximately 320 CE to 550 CE, is indeed well-known for its support of various religious traditions, including Buddhism. However, the Gupta Empire is also renowned for its promotion of Hinduism, particularly during the reigns of Chandragupta II and his successors.

80. When was Bihar first separated from the Bengal Presidency under British-ruled India?

(A) 1912

(B) 1936

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Bihar was first separated from the Bengal Presidency under British-ruled India in 1912. This separation led to the formation of the new province of Bihar and Orissa. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.

81. Consider the following statements :

1. Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area.

2. It is one of the great lakes of Africa.

3. It is bordered by four countries—Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda and Kenya.

4. The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. This statement is incorrect. Lake Victoria is actually the second largest freshwater lake in the world after Lake Superior.
It is one of the great lakes of Africa. This statement is correct. Lake Victoria is one of the five Great Lakes of Africa, along with Lake Tanganyika, Lake Malawi, Lake Kivu, and Lake Albert.
It is bordered by four countries—Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, and Kenya. This statement is incorrect. Lake Victoria is bordered by only three countries: Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. Rwanda does not share a border with the lake.
The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda. This statement is correct. The Nile River is the only major river that flows out of Lake Victoria.

So, the correct answer is ‘D’

82. Consider the following statements regarding ‘heat wave’:

1. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30 °C or more for plains.

2. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40 °C or more for hilly regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Only 1

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Regarding heat waves, the criteria for defining them typically involve temperature thresholds that vary depending on the region-

Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C or more for plains. This statement is incorrect. For plains, the threshold is generally higher. In India, a heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature exceeds 40°C for plains.
Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for hilly regions. This statement is also incorrect. For hilly regions, the threshold is lower; a heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature exceeds 30°C. So, neither of the statements is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘D’.

83. Match List–I with List–II:

List—I List—II

(Explorer) (Birthplace)

a. Christopher Columbus 1. Portugal

b. Jacques Cartier 2. United Kingdom

c. Sir Francis Drake 3. Italy

d. Ferdinand Magellan 4. France

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d

3 4 2 1

(B) a b c d

1 2 4 3

3 4 1 2

(D) a b c d

1 4 2 3

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Christopher Columbus: Born in Genoa, Italy.
Jacques Cartier: Born in Saint-Malo, France.
Sir Francis Drake: Born in Devonshire, England (United Kingdom).
Ferdinand Magellan: Born in Porto, Portugal.

So, the correct answer is ‘D’.

84. The emirates of UAE are

(A) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah

(B) Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Jeddah, Kuwait, Bahrain, Umm Al-Quwain

(D) Sharjah, Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Fujairah, Dubai, Bahrain, Kuwait

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is composed of seven emirates. The correct list of these emirates is: Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah and Ras Al-Khaimah. So, the correct answer is ‘A’.

85. The river Subarnarekha originates near which of the following villages?

(A) Ormanjhi

(B) Mandar

(D) Nagri

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The river Subarnarekha originates near Nagri village, which is located about 15 km southwest of Ranchi, the capital of Jharkhand. So the correct answer is: (D) Nagri
The Subarnarekha River is a major river in eastern India. It originates in Jharkhand, flows through Odisha and West Bengal, and empties into the Bay of Bengal. The river is known for its scenic beauty, rich biodiversity, and potential for hydropower generation.

86. Which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are in Bihar?

1. Valmiki National Park

2. Dudhwa National Park

3. Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary

4. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries located in Bihar are:

Valmiki National Park: Located in West Champaran district of Bihar, it is the only national park in the state.
Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary: Situated in the Munger district of Bihar.

The other options mentioned are:

Dudhwa National Park: Located in Uttar Pradesh.
Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in Rajasthan.

So, the correct answer is: (A) 1 and 4

87. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Gangetic Dolphin’:

1. The Gangetic River Dolphin has been categorized as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN’s Red List.

2. It does not have a crystalline eye lens rendering it effectively blind.

3. Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation.

4. It has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Gangetic River Dolphin has been categorized as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN’s Red List. This is true. Due to threats such as habitat loss, pollution, and accidental entanglement in fishing gear, the Gangetic River Dolphin is listed as endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
It does not have a crystalline eye lens rendering it effectively blind. This is also true. Gangetic River Dolphins have a reduced eye lens and are essentially blind. They rely on echolocation to navigate and hunt.
Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation. This is correct. Gangetic River Dolphins use echolocation, a technique that involves emitting high-pitched sounds and listening to the echoes to create a mental image of their surroundings.
It has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal. This is true. The Gangetic River Dolphin was officially declared India’s National Aquatic Animal in 2009.

Therefore, the correct answer is:(D) All of the above

88. The other name of river Gandak is

(A) Burhi Gandak

(B) Mahananda

(D) Punpun

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Gandak River is a significant river that flows through both Nepal and India. In Nepal, especially in its upper reaches, it is often referred to as the Narayani River. This name holds religious significance in Hindu mythology, as Narayana is one of the supreme deities in Hinduism. So, the correct answer is: (C) Narayani

Other Important Facts about the Gandak River:

Origin: The Gandak River originates in the Himalayas in Nepal.
Tributaries: Some of its major tributaries include the Kali Gandaki, Trishuli River, and Budhi Gandak.
Importance: The river is a vital source of water for irrigation, drinking, and hydropower generation in both Nepal and India.
Religious Significance: Besides Narayani, the river is also associated with other Hindu deities and is considered sacred by many.
So, while Burhi Gandak is an old channel parallel to the Gandak River, and Mahananda and Punpun are different rivers, Narayani is a well-known alternate name for the Gandak River, especially in Nepal.

89. Gold is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?

(A) Munger

(B) Saran

(D) Jamui

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Jamui, in Bihar, has notable gold deposits discovered in 2020. The area, particularly near the Bhagalpur-Jamui belt, shows significant potential, with exploration revealing substantial gold reserves, marking a significant development for India’s mineral resources. So, the correct answer is: (D) Jamui

90. The Triveni Canal has been constructed on which of the following rivers?

(A) Kosi

(B) Sone

(D) Mayurakshi

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Triveni Canal is a major irrigation canal in Bihar, India, that draws water from the Gandak River. It was constructed to provide irrigation to the arid regions of West Champaran district. The canal’s name, “Triveni,” refers to the three rivers (Ganges, Gandak, and Karmanasa) that converge at a point known as Triveni in Uttar Pradesh. So, the correct answer is: (C) Gandak

91. Assertion (A): Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil.

Reason (R): At some points of time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.

Select the correct answer.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(D) A is true but R is false

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true: Ghana and Brazil are indeed known for their gold deposits. Ghana has significant placer deposits, while Brazil is renowned for its gold-bearing veins.
Reason (R) is also true: The theory of continental drift, later developed into the theory of plate tectonics, posits that continents were once joined together as a single landmass called Pangaea. Over millions of years, these continents drifted apart, forming the current configuration.

Connecting Assertion and Reason:

The reason given in (R) is directly related to the assertion (A). The presence of similar geological formations, such as gold deposits, in regions that were once connected suggests a shared geological history. In this case, the gold-bearing rocks in Ghana and Brazil may have formed when these continents were part of the same landmass.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

92. Bihar’s geographical structure consists of rock systems. Match the rock systems with their descriptions :

a. Dharwar rock system 1. Created by the rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan

and Peninsular rivers

b. Vindhyan rock system 2. Can be found in the West Champaran district

c. Quaternary rock system 3. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system

d. Tertiary rock system 4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite and shale are the

main constituents of this rock system

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d

3 4 1 2

(B) a b c d

1 3 2 4

2 3 4 1

(D) a b c d

4 2 3 1

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Dharwar rock system: This is part of the oldest Archaean rock system.
Vindhyan rock system: Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite, and shale are the main constituents of this rock system.
Quaternary rock system: Created by the rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers.
Tertiary rock system: Can be found in the West Champaran district.

So, the correct answer is: (A) a b c d

3 4 1 2

93. Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising twenty-one islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?

(A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

(D) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The region described is the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve. It is renowned for its rich marine biodiversity and includes various ecosystems such as estuaries, beaches, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes, and mangroves. So, the correct answer is: (A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve (GoMBR), extends between Toothukudi and Ramanathapuram districts. It is located in the southeastern coastline of India, and is a unique marine environment rich in biodiversity.
The GoMBR came into existence on 18th February 1989, by a joint declaration of the Government of India and the Government of Tamil Nadu. The same has been recognized by the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO.

94. What is the local time of Thimphu (Bhutan) located at 90° East longitude when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon?

(A) 6:00 p.m.

(B) 4:00 p.m.

(D) 6:00 a.m.

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, so each hour corresponds to 15 degrees of longitude. Since Thimphu is 90 degrees east of Greenwich, it is 6 hours ahead in time. Therefore, when it is 12:00 noon in Greenwich, the time in Thimphu will be 12:00 noon + 6 hours = 6:00 p.m.

So, the correct answer is (A) 6:00 p.m.

95. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Natural gas is found in Dharwar rock formation.

(B) Mica is found in Kodarma.

(D) Petroleum reserves are found in Aravalli hills.

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Natural gas is found in Dharwar rock formation: This is incorrect. Natural gas is typically found in sedimentary rocks, not in the Dharwar rock formation, which is a metamorphic rock formation.
Mica is found in Kodarma: This is correct. Kodarma, located in Bihar, is well-known for its significant mica deposits.
The Cuddapah series is famous for diamonds: This is incorrect. While the Cuddapah series is known for its rich mineral deposits, diamonds are not among them. Diamonds are typically found in kimberlite pipes.
Petroleum reserves are found in Aravalli hills: This is incorrect. While the Aravalli hills are known for their rich mineral deposits, petroleum reserves are not found there. Petroleum is primarily found in sedimentary basins.

So, the correct answer is: (B) Mica is found in Kodarma.

96. How many latitudes are there on the globe drawn at 1 degree interval?

(A) 180

(B) 178

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To determine the number of latitudes on the globe drawn at a 1-degree interval, consider the following:

Latitude lines are drawn from the equator (0°) to the poles (90° N and 90° S).
There are 180 degrees of latitude in total, with 90 degrees in the Northern Hemisphere and 90 degrees in the Southern Hemisphere.

Including the equator (0°) and the poles (90° N and 90° S), the number of latitude lines drawn at 1-degree intervals is: 180 (from -90° to +90°, including both poles)

Thus, the correct answer is: (A) 180

97. The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is

(A) 300 m

(B) 150 m

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Kosi plain, located in Bihar, India, is a low-lying area primarily formed by the deposition of silt and sediments by the Kosi River. The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is relatively low.

The correct answer is: (C) 30 m

98. On which plateau, the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other?

(A) Bundelkhand

(B) Baghelkhand

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect in the Baghelkhand plateau region, specifically in the Koriya district of Chhattisgarh state. This intersection point is significant as it marks the northernmost extent of the Tropic of Cancer in India.

99. Which district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibbet boundary?

(A) Uttarkashi

(B) Chamoli

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In Uttarakhand, the districts that are situated along the Tibet boundary include Uttarkashi and Chamoli. Almora is not located along the Tibet boundary.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Almora

100. Where does the El Niño current flow?

(A) The Pacific Ocean

(B) The Indian Ocean

(D) More than one of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

El Niño is a climate pattern that occurs in the tropical Pacific Ocean. It involves the unusual warming of surface waters in this region, leading to significant changes in weather patterns around the world. The El Niño current is a warm ocean current that flows along the Peru coast in the Eastern Pacific.

So, the correct answer is:(A) The Pacific Ocean

101. Consider the following statements about the collegiums system:

1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time.

2. The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system.

3. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system.

4. The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 1 and 3

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time. This statement is correct. The collegium system for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts consists of a panel of five seniormost judges, headed by the CJI.
The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system. This statement is incorrect. The collegium system is not a product of legislation but rather evolved through a series of landmark judgments by the Supreme Court itself.
The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system. This statement is correct. Under the current system, the collegium plays the primary role in recommending the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case. This statement is incorrect. While the collegium system was solidified in the 1993 judgment, its origins can be traced back to earlier cases. The concept of a collegium of judges having a say in appointments was first articulated in the 1981 judgment known as the First Judges Case.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statements 2 and 4 are incorrect.

102. Consider the following statements regarding the 42^nd Amendment to the Constitution of India :

1. It added three words to the Preamble—‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’.

2. It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.

3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47.

4. It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures.

Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added three words to the Preamble—‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’.
It added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution. The 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added the 11th Fundamental Duty to the list. The Fundamental Duties are dealt with in Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
It added four new directive principles- Article 39, Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 48A.
It gave the President of India the power to disqualify members of state legislatures, in consultation with the Election Commission.

Therefore, statements 1 and 4 are correct, while statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

103. The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are

1. indications of primitive traits

2. distinctive culture

3. shyness of contact with the community at large

4. backwardness and geographical isolation Which of the above are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

To be declared as a Scheduled Tribe in India, a community generally needs to meet several criteria that include:
1. Indications of primitive traits
2. Distinctive culture
3. Shyness of contact with the community at large
4. Backwardness and geographical isolation
These criteria are used to identify communities that are considered to be socially and economically disadvantaged and are in need of special protection and assistance.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) All of the above

Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India are communities identified based on primitive traits, distinctive cultures, geographical isolation, and social backwardness. They are granted special protections and affirmative action to promote their development and integration.

According to the 2011 Census of India:

Nation Level:

Scheduled Tribes (STs) constitute approximately 8.6% of India’s total population.

State Level:

Madhya Pradesh has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population among states, with STs comprising about 21.1% of its population.
Nagaland and Mizoram also have significant ST populations, with around 88% and 94% respectively.

104. From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of Fundamental Rights?

(A) Ireland

(B) United States of America

(D) Canada

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Indian Constitution was heavily influenced by the constitutions of various countries, including the United States. The concept of Fundamental Rights, which guarantees certain basic freedoms to citizens, was largely inspired by the Bill of Rights in the United States Constitution. So, the correct answer is: (B) United States of America
The Indian Constitution’s Fundamental Rights, outlined in Part III, encompass six key rights: Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and the Right to Constitutional Remedies. These rights are designed to protect individual freedoms and promote justice.

105. Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 15

(D) Article 22

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Untouchability is abolished by Article 17 of the Indian Constitution. This article explicitly prohibits the practice of untouchability in any form and mandates its abolition. So, the correct answer is: (C) Article 17
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes the practice of untouchability in all forms, declaring it a punishable offense under law, effectively prohibiting any discrimination based on caste and ensuring equality for all citizens; this is considered a crucial aspect of the Right to Equality enshrined in the Constitution.

106. The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?

(A) The President

(B) The Chief Minister of the State

(D) The Parliament

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The President of India has the authority to determine the number of judges in a High Court. This power is granted under Article 216 of the Indian Constitution.
The President can, from time to time, deem it necessary to appoint additional judges to a High Court to meet the workload and ensure efficient functioning of the judiciary.

So, the correct answer is: (A) The President

107. The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?

(A) Scheduled Castes

(B) Religious Minorities

(D) Linguistic Minorities

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is primarily concerned with the governance and protection of the interests of Scheduled Tribes. It establishes provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas, which are predominantly inhabited by Scheduled Tribes.
The Fifth Schedule empowers the President to appoint a Governor’s Agent or a Tribal Advisory Council to oversee the affairs of these areas and safeguard the rights of the Scheduled Tribes.

So, the correct answer is: (C) Scheduled Tribes

108. In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?

(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab

(B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

(D) Both (A) and (B)

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The doctrine of the “basic structure” of the Constitution was first established by the Supreme Court of India in the case of: (B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
In this landmark judgment of 1973, the Supreme Court articulated the doctrine of “basic structure,” which holds that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered by amendments. This doctrine was not explicitly developed in the Golaknath case (A) or the Minerva Mills case (C), although the latter case did reaffirm and further clarify the doctrine.

109. Match the following political parties listed in List–I with their years of establishment in

List–II :

List—I List—II

(Political Parties) (Years of Establishment)

a. Communist Party of India (Marxist) 1. 1964

b. Communist Party of India 2. 1998

c. Bahujan Samaj Party 3. 1925

d. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) 4. 1984

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d

1 3 4 2

(B) a b c d

2 1 4 3

2 1 3 4

(D) a b c d

3 4 1 2

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Communist Party of India (Marxist) was established in 1964.
Communist Party of India was established in 1925.
Bahujan Samaj Party was established in 1984.
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) was established in 1998.

Thus, the correct matching is: (A) a b c d

1 3 4 2

110. Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?

(A) Article 110 (1)

(B) Article 122 (2)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The provision for allowing any member of the House to speak in their mother tongue is covered under: (C) Article 120 (1)
Article 120 (1) of the Indian Constitution states that the proceedings of the House may be conducted in Hindi or English, but a member can use any language they prefer, subject to the Speaker’s permission. This allows members to speak in their mother tongue if the Speaker permits.

111. The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include which of the following?

1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)

2. Gold

3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)

4. Reserve Tranche Position

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) include:

Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
Gold
Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Reserve Tranche Position

All these components are part of the foreign exchange reserves maintained by the RBI. These reserves are vital for managing exchange rates, stabilizing the economy, and ensuring financial stability.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) All of the above

112. Consider the following statements about ‘Rules of Origin’ :

1. Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product.

2. Rules of Origin help the custom agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product.

3. These are used for the purpose of trade statistics.

4. Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the sources of imports.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 3 and 4

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Rules of Origin are crucial for international trade as they determine the national source of a product and affect various trade-related regulations. Let’s evaluate the statements:

Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product. This is correct. Rules of Origin help identify the country where a product was produced.
Rules of Origin help the customs agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product. This is correct. These rules determine the applicable tariffs and regulations based on the product’s origin.
These are used for the purpose of trade statistics. This is correct. Rules of Origin play a role in compiling accurate trade statistics by identifying the origins of imported and exported goods.
Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the sources of imports. This is correct. Duties, tariffs, and trade restrictions often vary depending on the country of origin of the goods.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) All of the above

113. Consider the following statements about infant mortality rate :

1. It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10000 live births.

2. The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189·6.

3. In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.

4. As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10000 live births. This is incorrect. The IMR is typically expressed per 1,000 live births, not 10,000.
The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189.6. This is correct. In 1950, the IMR in India was around 189.6 per 1,000 live births.
In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30. This is correct. According to various reports, the IMR in India for 2019 was approximately 30 per 1,000 live births.
As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh. This is correct. In 2019, Uttar Pradesh had one of the highest IMRs among Indian states.

Based on this evaluation, the correct answer is: (C) Only 2 and 3

114. Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital

2. increasing the knowledge

3. increasing the skill levels

4. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1

(B) 1 and 2

(D) Only 4

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Human capital formation refers to the process through which individuals in a country enhance their abilities, skills, and knowledge, ultimately leading to increased productivity and economic growth. It is not just about accumulating capital but also about improving the overall capacities of people.

Evaluation of the statements:

Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital- This is not the core concept of human capital formation. It is more about the development of people rather than just accumulating capital.
Increasing knowledge- This is part of human capital formation.
Increasing the skill levels- This is also a part of human capital formation.
Increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of the people of the country- This best captures the essence of human capital formation, which encompasses increasing knowledge, skills, and overall capacities.

Thus, the correct answer is: (D) Only 4

115. Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy :

1. Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due.

2. Insolvency refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.

3. Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion.

4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) Only 1 and 2

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Evaluation of the statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy:

Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due.

This is incorrect. Bankruptcy is a legal status declared by a court, whereas insolvency is the financial state of being unable to pay debts.

Insolvency refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.

This is incorrect. Insolvency is the financial condition of being unable to pay debts. The legal process involving liquidation or reorganization is related to bankruptcy.

Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion.

This is incorrect. Bankruptcy is a legal status or process, whereas insolvency is the financial condition. Insolvency can lead to bankruptcy, but it is not the conclusion of bankruptcy.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.

This is correct. The IBBI regulates and supervises insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies, and information utilities.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Only 4

116. In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?

(A) 1956

(B) 1954

(D) 1950

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Industrial Policy Resolution was adopted in 1956. It outlined the government’s strategy for industrial development in India, emphasizing the role of the public sector and the need for a socialistic pattern of society.

So, the correct answer is: (A) 1956

117. Consider the following statements about the ProductionLinked Incentive (PLI) scheme :

1. The scheme offers a production-linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components.

2. The scheme has two categories of applicants, namely, global companies and domestic companies.

3. The scheme shall extend an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, to eligible companies, for a period of six years.

4. The target segment under PLI shall include (i) laptops, (ii) tablets, (iii) all-inone PCs, (iv) servers and (v) Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF).

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 4

(D) 2 and 3

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The PLI scheme does not categorize the applicants into global and domestic Categories so statement 2 is false.
Statement 3 is also false as the average incentive of 8% is not true and also the period of six years for eligibility of companies is wrong.

So, statements 2 & 3 are incorrect.

118. Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme :

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines.

2. This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy.

3. CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.

4. The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 2 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines.

This is incorrect. SVAMITVA is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministry of Mines.

This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy.

This is correct. SVAMITVA aims to create geospatial infrastructure and provides high accuracy in location benchmarking.

CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.

This is incorrect. CORS stands for Continuously Operating Reference Stations, which are used for high-accuracy geospatial measurements, not Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.

The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.

This is correct. SVAMITVA aims to provide clear land ownership records in rural areas using technologies like drones.

Therefore, the incorrect statements are: (B) 1 and 3

SVAMITVA Scheme is a property survey program launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 24 April 2020.

119. Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency?

1. The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs.

2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.

3. The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

4. Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1, 3 and 4

(B) Only 2

(D) All of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of a financial emergency. Evaluation of the consequences of invoking Article 360:

The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs.

This is correct. Under Article 360, during a financial emergency, the President can direct states to reduce salaries and allowances of employees.

Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.

This is incorrect. During a financial emergency, Money Bills or financial bills passed by the State Legislature are required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.

The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

This is correct. The President can also direct reductions in salaries and allowances of Union employees, including judges.

Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.

This is correct. During a financial emergency, Money Bills or financial bills passed by the State Legislature are required to be reserved for the President’s consideration.

Based on this evaluation, the correct answer is: (A) Only 1, 3 and 4

120. Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy?

1. High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending

2. Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth

3. Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending

4. Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to reduction of export competitiveness

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Stagflation refers to an economic condition where high inflation is coupled with stagnant economic growth and high unemployment. To determine which factors could contribute to stagflation, let’s evaluate each statement:

High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending

This can contribute to stagflation if it leads to higher inflation without corresponding economic growth, particularly if the increased spending does not stimulate growth effectively.

Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth

This is a key characteristic of stagflation. Declining industrial production and sluggish growth can contribute to stagnation in the economy, while inflationary pressures persist.

Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending

A decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending can lead to sluggish growth and unemployment. Combined with inflation, this can contribute to stagflation.

Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to reduction of export competitiveness

While an appreciation of the currency might lead to reduced export competitiveness, it does not directly contribute to inflation. However, if it leads to economic stagnation due to reduced exports, it could be a factor.

Thus, the factors contributing to stagflation would include high inflation, sluggish growth, and decreased demand. Appreciation of the currency might contribute indirectly by affecting economic growth. Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

121. As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector.

2. It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels.

3. It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.

4. It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 4

(D) Only 4

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

To determine which statements accurately describe the trend of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India as per the Economic Survey 2023, let’s review each statement:

It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector.

This statement is not accurate according to recent trends. FDI in India has generally shown positive trends, with increasing participation from both public and private sectors.

It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels.

This is also not accurate.

It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.

This statement is somewhat accurate but not entirely precise. While reforms in the telecom sector have contributed to FDI inflows, the trend has been influenced by multiple factors including policy changes and global economic conditions. There have been fluctuations in annual FDI inflows.

It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.

This statement is not accurate. While global economic conditions do affect FDI, India’s FDI trends have been relatively robust even in challenging global economic conditions.

Based on these evaluations, the correct answer is: (D) Only 4

122. What is the current population of Gaya district of Bihar?

(A) 598000

(B) 320000

(D) 234000

Correct answer is option ‘DELETED’

Explanation:

According to the 2011 Census the population of Gaya District was 43 lakh (4391418). According to the population estimates and projections from the latest revision of the UN World Urbanization Prospects, Gaya’s 2023 population is now estimated at 598,345.
These estimates represent the Urban agglomeration of Gaya, which typically includes Gaya’s population in addition to adjacent suburban areas. But according to estimates as per aadhar uidai.gov.in Dec 2023 data, the current population is estimated to be 6,104,072. So, in view of varying estimates and in the absence of any recent census data, there is no authentic data about the current population.

Hence the question is deleted.

123. Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct?

(A) The expenditure is on interest payments.

(B) The expenditure is on science and technology.

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Non-plan expenditures of the Central Government primarily include expenditures that are not part of the annual plans or developmental schemes but are essential for the functioning of the government.

The correct statement is: (A) The expenditure is on interest payments.

Non-plan expenditures typically include:

Interest payments on past borrowings.
Subsidies.
Defense spending.
Pensions.
Wages and salaries of government employees.

Expenditures on science and technology, agriculture, and other developmental projects generally fall under plan expenditures or specific schemes rather than non-plan expenditures.

124. Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India?

(A) It has expanded trade in goods and services.

(B) It has led to greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment.

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Globalization has expanded trade in goods and services: This is true. Globalization has led to increased trade between countries.
It has led to greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment: This is true. Globalization has attracted more foreign investment into India.
Increase in exports is greater than increase in imports: This is false. While India has experienced significant growth in exports, imports have also increased substantially. In fact, in recent years, India’s trade deficit has widened.

Therefore, option (C) is not true about globalization and its impact on India.

125. Consider the following statements about the latest developments in the Union Government finances:

1. The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9·2 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21.

2. The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7·7 percent of GDP in FY22.

3. The revenue collection over the last two years has gone down.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The fiscal deficit for FY21 was indeed high due to increased expenditure to handle the pandemic and a contraction in revenue. While Statement 2 and 3 are not correct.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Only 1

126. Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?

1. The military superiority of the British

2. The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology

3. There was a lack of support from all the sections of society

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The failure of the Revolt of 1857 can be attributed to several factors:

The military superiority of the British: The British had a well-organized, disciplined, and technologically advanced military force, which played a significant role in suppressing the revolt.
The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology: The revolt lacked a unified leadership and clear, cohesive objectives, which weakened the overall effectiveness and coordination of the rebellion.
There was a lack of support from all sections of society: The revolt did not receive widespread support across different regions and communities, limiting its effectiveness and reach.

Given these points, the correct answer is: (C) All of the above

127. The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917 was

(A) Muzaffar Ahmad

(B) Batak Mian

(D) None of them

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Batak Mian, a cook from Bihar, saved Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a poisoning attempt in 1917.
He refused to administer poisoned milk to Gandhi, despite being pressured by British officials. His bravery and loyalty to Gandhi are a testament to his character.

So, the correct answer is (B) Batak Mian.

128. The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–1938 was organized by whom?

(A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(B) Jayaprakash Narayan

(D) Peer Ali Khan

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–1938 was organized by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
There was a significant peasant uprising in Bihar during the 1930s.

The Bakasht Movement:

The Bakasht Movement was a significant peasant uprising in Bihar during the 1930s. Bakasht refers to land that was self-cultivated by tenants.
The movement was primarily aimed at protecting the rights of these tenants against the exploitative practices of the zamindars (landlords).

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati: The Leader

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was a prominent Indian ascetic, nationalist, and peasant leader.
He played a pivotal role in organizing and leading the Bakasht Movement. The movement sought to secure the rights of tenant farmers, prevent their eviction from Bakasht lands, and challenge the oppressive feudal system.

129. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom Struggle:

1. Home Rule Movement

2. Surat Split

3. Kheda Satyagraha

4. Minto-Morley Reforms

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

(A) 1–3–2–4

(B) 2–4–1–3

(D) 2–3–1–4

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Surat Split (1907): The split in the Indian National Congress between the extremists and the moderates.
Minto-Morley Reforms (1909): Reforms introduced to increase Indian representation in governance.
Home Rule Movement (1916): Led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant, aimed at self-governance.
Kheda Satyagraha (1918): Led by Mahatma Gandhi, aimed at relieving the plight of farmers in Kheda.

Thus, the correct chronological order is: (B) 2–4–1–3

130. Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?

(A) The Strachey Commission

(B) The Arms Act

(D) The Ilbert Bill

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Lord Lytton, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880, is associated with several significant acts and reforms. To address each option:

The Strachey Commission: This was related to education reforms and was set up during Lord Lytton’s tenure, so Lord Lytton is associated with this.
The Arms Act: Enacted in 1878, this act was introduced during Lord Lytton’s tenure to regulate the possession of arms and was part of his policies.
The Vernacular Press Act: This act was also introduced during Lord Lytton’s administration in 1878 to curb the influence of the vernacular press.
The Ilbert Bill: This was a legislative proposal introduced in 1883 by Lord Ripon, not Lord Lytton. It aimed to allow Indian judges to preside over cases involving Europeans, which faced strong opposition.

Therefore, Lord Lytton is not associated with: (D) The Ilbert Bill

131. Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?

(A) The Treaty of Allahabad

(B) The Treaty of Sugauli

(D) The Treaty of Salbai

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In 1765 after the decisive British victory at the Battle of Buxar in 1764, the Nawab of Awadh, Shuja-ud-Daulah, and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II were forced to sign the Treaty of Allahabad. So, the correct answer is: (A) The Treaty of Allahabad
The treaty granted the British the right to collect revenue from certain territories in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. It also established the British as the dominant power in northern India.

132. The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year?

(A) 1635

(B) 1632

(D) 1648

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in 1632. So, the correct answer is (B) 1632.
The Dutch East India Company, established in 1602, was a major European trading entity in India. It set up trading posts in Surat, Cochin, and Patna, focusing on spices, textiles, and other goods.
The company had a significant presence in the Indian Ocean trade but struggled against British and Portuguese competition. By the late 18th century, it had largely withdrawn from India, leaving behind a legacy of commercial and cultural exchanges.

133. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Bardoli Satyagraha

(D) Rowlatt Satyagraha

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Mahatma Gandhi first used the hunger strike as a weapon during the Ahmedabad Strike in 1918. So, the correct answer is: (C) Ahmedabad Strike.
He fasted in solidarity with the striking textile workers to pressure the mill owners to meet their demands for a wage increase. This successful use of the hunger strike established it as a powerful tool in Gandhi’s arsenal of non-violent resistance.

134. The Quit India Movement in 1942 witnessed significant contributions from leaders of Bihar. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Shri Krishna Singh

(D) Ram Manohar Lohia

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The prominent Bihar leader known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ who actively participated in the Quit India Movement is Shri Krishna Singh. He was a significant figure in the movement and later became the first Chief Minister of Bihar.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Shri Krishna Singh.

135. In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step to address the issue?

(A) Appointed Mahatma Gandhi as the Governor of Champaran

(B) Enforced strict curfew and imposed Martial Law in the region

(D) Declared Champaran as an independent State

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government established the Champaran Agrarian Committee to investigate and address the grievances of the indigo farmers. So, the correct answer is: (C) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee
This committee, headed by Mahatma Gandhi, played a crucial role in exposing the exploitative practices of the British planters and securing reforms for the farmers.

136. Match List–I with List–II :

List—I List—II

a. Servants of India Society 1. Debendranath Tagore

b. Tattwabodhini Sabha 2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

c. Atmiya Sabha 3. Ram Mohan Roy

4. Keshab Chandra Sen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c

2 1 3

(B) a b c

2 4 3

1 2 3

(D) a b c

1 4 3

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Servants of India Society: Founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905.
Tattwabodhini Sabha: Founded by Debendranath Tagore in 1839.
Atmiya Sabha: Founded by Ram Mohan Roy in 1815.

The correct answer is: (A) a b c

2 1 3

137. Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which of the following States of India?

(A) Kerala

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Ambabai, also known as Ambabai Muthamma, was a prominent freedom fighter from Karnataka, India. She played a significant role in the Indian independence movement, particularly in the Mysore region. So, the correct answer is: (C) Karnataka
She was known for her courage and determination in resisting British colonial rule. She participated in various non-violent protests, including the Salt March and the Quit India Movement.
Her contributions to the freedom struggle are celebrated and remembered in Karnataka, and she is considered a symbol of women’s empowerment and resistance against oppression.

138. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?

(A) P. Lawrence

(B) A. V. Alexander

(D) None of them

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Cabinet Mission of 1946, which was sent to India to discuss the transfer of power from the British government to Indian leadership, consisted of three members:

P. Lawrence (also known as Lord Pethick-Lawrence, who was the Secretary of State for India)
V. Alexander (who was the Minister of States)
J. Andrew (who was a member of the British Cabinet and also known as Lord Ismay, the Chief of Staff to the British Army)

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) J. Andrew

139. “The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of safety valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats.” Which leader said that?

(A) C. Rajagopalachari

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(D) None of them

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The statement that “The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of the safety valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats” is attributed to Lala Lajpat Rai. So, the correct answer is: (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
This theory suggested that the formation of the Indian National Congress was a way for the British government to provide a controlled outlet for Indian grievances and to prevent more radical forms of dissent.

140. In which of the following Indian National Congress Sessions, the resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights were passed for the first time?

(A) Surat Session—1907

(B) Gaya Session—1922

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress was held in March 1931.

Presided Over By: The session was presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Important Resolutions:

Fundamental Rights: The session is most notable for the adoption of a resolution on Fundamental Rights. This included provisions for civil liberties, equality before the law, freedom of speech, and protection against discrimination. So, the correct answer is: (C) Karachi Session—1931
Economic and Social Program: The Congress also adopted a resolution on economic and social reforms, which aimed to address poverty, unemployment, and other socio-economic issues.
Context: The Karachi Session occurred against the backdrop of the ongoing Civil Disobedience Movement, which was part of the broader struggle for Indian independence.
Outcome: The resolutions adopted at this session laid the groundwork for future constitutional developments in India and emphasized the Congress’s commitment to democratic and social principles.
The Karachi Session was a significant milestone in the Indian independence movement, marking a strong commitment to fundamental rights and socio-economic justice.

141. In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is written as ‘$ ÷ *%’ and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘#% ÷ ×’. How will the word ‘MADE’ be written in that code language?

(A) $ ÷ × %

(B) * ÷ $ %

(D) # ÷ × %

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

For GAME:

G → $

A → ÷

M → *

E → %

For BEAD:

B → #

E → %

A → ÷

D → ×

We can match the characters with their symbols:

G is coded as $.

A is coded as ÷.

M is coded as *.

E is coded as %.

B is coded as #.

D is coded as ×.

Now, let’s encode the word MADE using the same coding:

M → *

A → ÷

D → ×

E → %

Therefore, MADE would be written as * ÷ × %.

So, the correct answer is: (C) * ÷ × %

142. Q travels towards the East. M travels towards the North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels towards the right of Q. Which of the following is definitely true?

(A) M and S travel in the opposite directions

(B) S travels towards West

(D) M and S travel in the same direction

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Q travels towards the East.

This means Q is moving towards the right.

M travels towards the North.

M is moving upwards on a map.

T travels towards the right of Q.

Since Q is traveling East, the right of Q is South. Therefore, T travels South.

S and T travel in opposite directions.

Since T is traveling South, S must be traveling North because North and South are opposite directions.

With these pieces of information:

M is traveling North.
S is traveling North (as determined from the fact that S travels in the opposite direction to T, which is South).
Therefore, M and S are both traveling in the same direction (North).

From the options provided:

M and S travel in the opposite directions — Incorrect. M and S both travel North. (B) S travels towards the West — Incorrect. S travels North. (C) T travels towards North — Incorrect. T travels South. (D) M and S travel in the same direction — Correct. Both M and S travel North.

So, the correct answer is: (D) M and S travel in the same direction.

143. A man ‘Ramesh’, who owns a plot of land of 100 square yards, increases his plot of land by acquiring 10% more from his neighbour ‘Suresh’, who also owns 100 square yards land. After 2 years, he sells back 10% of the total plot to the neighbour. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Ramesh’s land is more than Suresh

(B) Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

1. Initial Land Holdings:
Ramesh: 100 square yards
Suresh: 100 square yards
1. Ramesh acquires 10% more land from Suresh:
10% of Suresh’s 100 square yards is 10 square yards.
Ramesh acquires these 10 square yards from Suresh.
Ramesh’s land after acquisition: 100 + 10 = 110 square yards.
Suresh’s land after selling 10 square yards: 100 – 10 = 90 square yards.
1. After 2 years, Ramesh sells back 10% of his total land to Suresh:
10% of Ramesh’s 110 square yards is 11 square yards.
Ramesh sells these 11 square yards back to Suresh.
Ramesh’s land after selling 11 square yards: 110 – 11 = 99 square yards.
Suresh’s land after buying back 11 square yards: 90 + 11 = 101 square yards.

4. Final Land Holdings:

Ramesh: 99 square yards
Suresh: 101 square yards

So, Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh’s land.

Thus, the correct answer is: (B) Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh.

144. Find the odd pair among the following options.

(A) Millinery: Hats

(B) Brewery: Alcohol

(D) Snobbery: Shoes

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

(A) Millinery: Hats

Millinery refers to the craft or trade of making hats. So, hats are directly related to millinery.

(B) Brewery: Alcohol

A brewery is a place where alcohol (beer) is produced. So, alcohol is directly related to a brewery.

Stationery refers to writing materials, which often include paper. Thus, paper is directly related to stationery.

(D) Snobbery: Shoes

Snobbery is a social attitude or behavior, while shoes are a type of clothing. There is no direct or intrinsic connection between snobbery and shoes.

The odd pair is: (D) Snobbery: Shoes

145. What should come in place of a question mark (?) in the following number series?

132 156 ? 210 240 272

(A) 196

(B) 182

(D) 204

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Let’s calculate the differences between consecutive terms:

Difference between 156 and 132: 156-132 = 24
Difference between 210 and 156 (skipping the missing term for now): 210-156=54
Difference between 240 and 210: 240-210=30
Difference between 272 and 240: 272-240=32

We notice that the differences are:

24 (132 to 156)
(missing term)
54 (210 to 156)
30 (210 to 240)
32 (240 to 272)

Observing these differences, let’s identify a pattern in these differences. We see that:

The first difference (24) and second difference (54) suggest that there might be a pattern we need to determine. Let’s assume there is a consistent pattern in the sequence of differences.

If we hypothesize that the differences increase in some arithmetic or pattern, we can test each option:

Testing Each Option

If the missing number is 182:

Difference between 182 and 156: 182-156=26
Difference between 210 and 182: 210-182=28

Checking the pattern of differences:

24, 26, 28, 30, 32

This pattern shows a consistent increase of 2 in the differences.

Thus, the missing number that fits the pattern is: (B) 182

146. Select the missing number from the given alternatives:

44	49	37
52	?	41
58	35	53

(A) 56

(B) 77

(D) 63

The correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

44	39	37
52	77	41
58	35	53

Because, 44-37 =7×7 =49

Or, 58-53 = 5×7=35

Thus, 52-41=11×7=77

So, the correct answer is: (B) 77

147. Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement.

Statement:

In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200, of which 160 runs were made by spinners.

Conclusions:

1. 80% of the team consisted of spinners.

2. The opening batsmen were spinners.

Select the correct answer.

(A) Only 1 follows the statement

(B) Only 2 follows the statement

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement

The correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Conclusion 1: 80% of the team consisted of spinners.

The statement says 160 out of 200 runs were made by spinners, which is 80% of the runs. However, this does not mean 80% of the team consisted of spinners. The percentage of runs made by spinners does not directly indicate the percentage of spinners in the team. The statement provides no information about the number of spinners versus other players.

Conclusion 2: The opening batsmen were spinners.

The statement provides information only about the runs made by spinners and not about the specific roles or positions of the players in the team. There is no information about whether the opening batsmen were spinners or not.

Final Conclusion:

Conclusion 1 does not logically follow from the statement because the percentage of runs made by spinners does not imply the percentage of spinners in the team.
Conclusion 2 does not logically follow from the statement because there is no information about the specific positions of the players.

Thus, the correct answer is: (D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement

148. In a code language, if GREAT is written as 718222620 and MONK is written as 13121411,then how will VIGOROUS be written in the same language?

(A) 22187121812619

(B) 21177121811619

(D) 21187111711620

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

GREAT → 718222620

Breaking down the code:

G → 7
R → 18
E → 5 (Here, E should be 5, but we see 22 in the code. Let’s investigate further.)
A → 1
T → 20

The code “718222620” suggests that each letter is converted into a number, but with more investigation, it appears that the numbers might reflect the position of letters in the alphabet or some other encoding.

MONK → 13121411

Breaking down the code:

M → 13
→ 15 (Here, we see 14 instead of 15. We need to verify the exact pattern.)
N → 14
K → 11

Verifying the Pattern:

From the given examples, it seems that each letter is encoded by its position in the alphabet, but it appears that the numbers used are slightly different. Let’s test this approach for “VIGOROUS”:

V → 22 (V is the 22nd letter of the alphabet)
I → 9 (I is the 9th letter, but let’s verify as the pattern seems different)
G → 7 (G is the 7th letter)
→ 15 (O is the 15th letter)
R → 18 (R is the 18th letter)
U → 21 (U is the 21st letter)
S → 19 (S is the 19th letter)

Applying the Pattern:

Let’s code “VIGOROUS”:

V → 22
I → 9
G → 7
→ 15
R → 18
→ 15
U → 21
S → 19

Concatenating these values: 22 (V) 9 (I) 7 (G) 15 (O) 18 (R) 15 (O) 21 (U) 19 (S)

The best match for the encoding pattern seems to be Option (A): 22187121812619.

Conclusion: The most likely encoding for “VIGOROUS” based on the pattern observed is:

(A) 22187121812619

149. Find the odd one in the following groups:

Q,W,Z,B B,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,X

(A) Q,W,Z,B

(B) M,S,V,X

(D) B,H,K,M

The correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Group A: Q, W, Z, B

Q is the 17th letter of the alphabet.
W is the 23rd letter.
Z is the 26th letter.
B is the 2nd letter.

This group does not follow a clear sequential or consistent pattern.

Group B: B, H, K, M

B is the 2nd letter of the alphabet.
H is the 8th letter.
K is the 11th letter.
M is the 13th letter.

Observing the differences:

Difference between B and H: 8 – 2 = 6
Difference between H and K: 11 – 8 = 3
Difference between K and M: 13 – 11 = 2

The differences (6, 3, 2) don’t form a consistent pattern.

Group C: W, C, G, J

W is the 23rd letter.
C is the 3rd letter.
G is the 7th letter.
J is the 10th letter.

Observing the differences:

Difference between W and C: 23 – 3 = 20
Difference between C and G: 7 – 3 = 4
Difference between G and J: 10 – 7 = 3

The differences (20, 4, 3) don’t form a consistent pattern.

Group D: M, S, V, X

M is the 13th letter.
S is the 19th letter.
V is the 22nd letter.
X is the 24th letter.

Observing the differences:

Difference between M and S: 19 – 13 = 6
Difference between S and V: 22 – 19 = 3
Difference between V and X: 24 – 22 = 2

The differences (6, 3, 2) are consistent with the earlier pattern in Group B.

Conclusion:

The odd one out is the group that does not fit a consistent or discernible pattern in the differences between the positions of the letters.

Group A: No clear pattern.
Group B: Differences (6, 3, 2) are consistent but not with others.
Group C: Differences (20, 4, 3) are inconsistent.
Group D: Differences (6, 3, 2) are consistent.

Group C stands out as having a pattern that differs from the other groups, which exhibit some consistent difference patterns.

Thus, the odd one out is: (C) W, C, G, J

150. Four branches of a company are located at M, N, O and P. M is in the North of N at a distance of 4 km; P is in the South of O at a distance of 2 km; N is in the Southeast of O by 1 km. What is the distance between M and P in km?

(A) 5·34

(B) 6·74

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Determine the distance between points M and P based on the following given locations:

M is north of N at a distance of 4 km.
N is southeast of O by 1 km.
P is south of O at a distance of 2 km.

Step-by-Step Solution:

1. Setting Up Coordinates:

Let’s place point N at the origin (0, 0).
Then, M will be at (0, 4) because it is directly north of N.
Since N is southeast of O, O is northwest of N. Given the 45-degree angle and a distance of 1 km, the coordinates of O are approximately (-0.707, 0.707).
Since P is directly south of O, its coordinates will be (-0.707, 0.707 – 2) or (-0.707, -1.293).

2. Calculating the Distance Between M and P:

Coordinates of M: (0, 4)
Coordinates of P: (-0.707, -1.293)
Use the distance formula: Distance = √((x₂ – x₁)² + (y₂ – y₁)²)
Distance = √((-0.707 – 0)² + (-1.293 – 4)²)
Distance = √(0.5 + 28.05)
Distance ≈ 5.34 km

Conclusion: The distance between M and P is approximately 5.34 km.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) 5.34

68th BPSC PYQ Prelims Solved GS & CSAT Questions

1. The phrase ‘equality before law’ used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of

(A) Britain

(B) USA

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees “equality before the law” and “equal protection of the laws.” The phrase “equality before the law” is indeed influenced by the English legal tradition, which is a part of British constitutional principles. So, the correct answer to the question is: (A) Britain
This concept embodies the idea that every individual, regardless of their status or position, is subject to the same laws and entitled to equal protection under those laws.

2. What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 1 year 10 months and 12 days

(B) 2 years 10 months and 5 days

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly sat for the first time on 9th December 1946 and final draft was ready on26th Nov 1949 So it was precisely 2 years 11 months and 18 days. Thus, the correct answer is: (C) 2 years 11 months and 18 days
And the Constitution was adopted on January 26, 1950.

3. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to

(A) the Chief Minister

(B) the Governor

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In a state, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. This means that the Council of Ministers must maintain the confidence of the majority of the members of the Legislative Assembly to remain in power.
Similarly, Union Council of Ministers is responsible to the Parliament.

So, the correct answer is:(C) the Legislative Assembly

4. Consider the following statements: In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of

1. decision-making powers

2. system as a whole

3. judicial powers

4. administrative powers

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The 73rd Amendment to the Indian Constitution, enacted in 1992, aimed to strengthen the system of local self-government in rural areas through the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions. This amendment primarily focused on the decentralization of decision-making and administrative powers to enhance local governance.

Given this context:

Decision-making powers: Correct, as the amendment sought to decentralize decision-making to the local level.
System as a whole: Correct, as it aimed to strengthen the entire system of local governance.
Judicial powers: Incorrect, as the amendment did not focus on decentralizing judicial powers.
Administrative powers: Correct, as administrative functions were transferred to local bodies.

Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4.

5. The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes

(A) members directly elected by citizens

(B) members indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament, has several categories of members:

Members indirectly elected by the state legislatures – These are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and the Electoral college for Union Territories.
Members nominated by the President of India – These members are nominated for their expertise in various fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
Members of the Rajya Sabha are not directly elected by citizens. Instead, they are elected either by the elected members of state legislative assemblies or appointed by the President.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) More than one of the above

6. Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?

(A) Appellate jurisdiction

(B) Original jurisdiction

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Supreme Court of India has several important functions and jurisdictions:

Appellate jurisdiction – The Supreme Court hears appeals on civil and criminal matters from lower courts, which is part of its appellate jurisdiction.
Original jurisdiction – The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in certain cases, such as disputes between states or between the Center and states. And cases related to the violation of fundamental rights. Specifically, under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, individuals can directly approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights
Collegium system – This system is involved in the appointment and transfer of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.

Since the Supreme Court is concerned with all the mentioned aspects (appellate jurisdiction, original jurisdiction, and the collegium system), the correct answer is: (D) More than one of the above

7. The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

(A) 21 years

(B) 25 years

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which was designed to enhance local self-government through Panchayati Raj Institutions, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions is: (A) 21 years
This age requirement applies to the members of the Panchayats at various levels. For the Chairperson of a Panchayat, the age requirement is also 21 years.

8. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) The State Government can establish more than one District Forum in district if it deems fit.

(B) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.

(C) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

In India, the Consumer Disputes Redressal mechanism at the district level is structured under the Consumer Protection Act.

District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (DCDRC)

Jurisdiction: The DCDRC handles complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed ₹1 crore.
Composition: The Commission is typically comprised of a President and two members, one of whom must be a woman.
Establishment: The State Government has the authority to establish more than one District Commission in a district if deemed necessary.

Given these points, let’s re-evaluate the statements:

The State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit. – Correct.
One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman. – Correct.
The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs. – Correct. Pecuniary jurisdiction was amended from 1 crore to 50 lakhs in Dec 2021.

S0, no statement is incorrect. Hence answer option ‘E’ is correct.

9. At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate a Panchayati Raj structure?

(A) District level

(B) Gram Panchayat level

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In the Panchayati Raj structure, a Panchayat Samiti operates at the: (C) Block-level body
The Panchayat Samiti is the intermediate level of the Panchayati Raj system, functioning at the block level.
It acts as a link between the Gram Panchayats (which operate at the village or Gram level) and the Zila Parishad (which operates at the district level).

10. Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?

(A) National Extension Service

(B) Integrated Rural Development Programme

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The first major program of community development in India was: (A) National Extension Service
The National Extension Service was launched in 1953 and was the precursor to the broader Community Development Program.
It aimed to promote rural development through a systematic approach to improve agricultural practices, infrastructure, and overall community well-being.

11. Which of the following are the objectives of the SEZ Act, 2005?

1. Generation of additional economic activity

2. Promotion of exports of goods and services

3. Creation of employment

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) More than one of the above the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The objectives of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005 are:

Generation of additional economic activity: SEZs are intended to attract investment and create new economic opportunities.
Promotion of exports of goods and services: SEZs are designed to promote exports by providing a favorable environment for businesses.
Creation of employment: SEZs are expected to create jobs in the manufacturing, services, and other sectors.

Therefore, the correct answer is: A) 1, 2 and 3

12. What is the policy measure adopted by the Government of India to improve the system of agricultural marketing?

(A) Minimum Support Price (MSP)

(B) Maintenance of Buffer Stock

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Government of India has adopted multiple policy measures to improve the system of agricultural marketing. Here’s a breakdown of the key measures:

Minimum Support Price (MSP): This is a guaranteed price that the government offers to farmers for their produce. It ensures that farmers receive a fair price for their crops, even if market prices are low.
Maintenance of Buffer Stock: The government maintains a buffer stock of essential food grains to ensure food security and stabilize prices. This helps to prevent fluctuations in prices due to seasonal variations in production.
Public Distribution System (PDS): The PDS is a government-run food distribution system that provides subsidized food grains to a large section of the population, especially the poor and vulnerable. This helps to ensure that people have access to affordable food.

All three of these measures play a crucial role in improving the agricultural marketing system in India. They help to protect farmers’ incomes, ensure food security, and stabilize prices. Thus, the correct answer is (D) More than one of the above.

13. Which committee suggested the enactment of the Competition Act, 2002?

(A) Rangarajan Committee

(B) S. V. S. Raghavan Committee

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The enactment of the Competition Act, 2002, was primarily suggested by the: (B) S. V. S. Raghavan Committee
The S. V. S. Raghavan Committee was tasked with reviewing the competition policy and legislation in India. Their recommendations led to the drafting and implementation of the Competition Act, 2002, which aimed to promote and sustain competition in markets to protect consumer interests and ensure fair trade practices.

14. Match List-1 with List-II:

List-1 List-II

a. Grey Revolution 1. Onion production

b. Pink Revolution 2. Tomato and meat production

c. Silver Revolution 3. Production of eggs

d. Red Revolution 4. Fertilizers d

(A) a b c d 4 1 3 2

(B) a b c d 3 1 4 2

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The revolutions in Indian agriculture and food production with their respective areas, consider the following associations:

Grey Revolution refers to the production of fertilizers.
Pink Revolution relates to tomato and meat production.
Silver Revolution concerns the production of eggs.
Red Revolution is associated with onion production.

So, the correct answer is: (A) a b c d

4 2 3 1

15. Which of the following Five-Year Plans was focussed on Human Resource Development?

(A) First

(B) Third

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956): Focused on agriculture and irrigation, including increasing food production and agricultural productivity.
Emphasized basic industries and infrastructure to support agricultural growth.
Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966): Focused on achieving self-sufficiency in food production, with a significant emphasis on agriculture.
Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-1979): Emphasized education, health, and employment.
This plan aimed to improve the quality of life and address social inequalities.
The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992-1997) in India indeed had a strong focus on Human Resource Development. Key aspects of the Eighth Plan included:
Education: Significant emphasis was placed on improving educational facilities and increasing literacy rates.
Health: The plan aimed to improve healthcare services and public health infrastructure.
Employment: It focused on generating employment opportunities and improving skill development.

The Eighth Five-Year Plan was designed to address critical issues in human resource development, making it a central feature of this plan.

So, the correct answer is: (E) None of the above

16. Which of the following States of India received the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flow during April to September 2022,

(A) Karnataka

(B) Tripura

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

During the period from April to September 2022, the state of India that received the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flow was: (A) Karnataka
Karnataka, particularly its capital Bangalore, is a major hub for technology and innovation, attracting significant foreign investment.

17. In which budget did the Finance Minister announce the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System?

(A) Union Budget, 1991-1992

(B) Union Budget, 1992-1993

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) was introduced to provide a more flexible and market-oriented approach to exchange rate management in India. The key points about LERMS are:
Introduction: LERMS was announced in the Union Budget for 1992-1993, presented by Finance Minister Manmohan Singh. This was part of the broader economic liberalization measures introduced in the early 1990s.
Purpose: The system aimed to provide greater flexibility in the exchange rate mechanism and to ease the control on foreign exchange transactions. It was introduced to address the balance of payments crisis and to liberalize the foreign exchange market.
Mechanism: Under LERMS, a dual exchange rate system was implemented where a portion of foreign exchange earnings could be converted at market rates, while the rest was at official rates. This system allowed for more market-driven exchange rates for part of the foreign exchange transactions.
Transition: LERMS was a precursor to the full adoption of a market-determined exchange rate system, which later evolved into the current system where the Indian Rupee is freely traded in the foreign exchange market.
The correct answer for the introduction of LERMS in the context of the budget is indeed: (B) Union Budget, 1992-1993

18. Which of the following were goals of the Five-Year Plans?

1. Growth

2. Modernization

3. Self-reliance

4.Literature

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The Five-Year Plans had several primary goals:

Growth – Economic growth was a central aim, with a focus on increasing the national income and overall economic development.
Modernization – Modernization of agriculture, industry, and infrastructure was a significant goal to enhance efficiency and productivity.
Self-reliance – Promoting self-reliance in various sectors such as agriculture, industry, and defense was crucial to reduce dependency on external sources.
Literature, while important for cultural and educational development, was not a specific goal of the Five-Year Plans.

Given this, the correct assessment based on the goals listed is: (E) None of the above
This is because the correct goals of the Five-Year Plans are Growth, Modernization, and Self-reliance, and not Literature.

19. Which organization carries out the survey for determining the poverty line?

(A) NSSO

(B) NITI Aayog

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The organization responsible for carrying out surveys to determine the poverty line in India is: (A) NSSO (National Sample Survey Office)
The NSSO, now part of the National Statistical Office (NSO), conducts surveys such as the National Sample Surveys to collect data on various aspects of poverty and living standards, which are used to estimate the poverty line.
While the NITI Aayog uses data from these surveys for policy recommendations, and the RBI focuses on financial and economic matters, it is the NSSO that specifically conducts the surveys to determine the poverty line.

20. The trade balance of India (merchandise and services) for December 2022 (provisional) is

(A) (-) 10-50 USD billion

(B) (+) 11-98 USD billion

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Merchandise Trade Balance: This refers specifically to the balance of trade in goods (exports minus imports).
Overall Trade Balance: This includes both merchandise and services (exports and imports of both goods and services).

For December 2022, the provisional data indicated:

Merchandise Trade Deficit: India had a merchandise trade deficit of approximately $17.43 billion.
Overall Trade Balance (Merchandise and Services): The combined trade deficit for merchandise and services was about $11.98 billion.

Thus, the overall trade balance figure, which includes both merchandise and services, for December 2022 was: (C) (-) 11.98 USD billion

21. At what percentage has Bihar registered the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate for the year 2020-2022?

(A) 4% in rural and 6.5% in urban areas

(B) 6% in rural and 8.1% in urban areas

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Bihar registered the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate for the year 2020-2022 at:
4% in rural areas
6.5% in urban areas

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) 4% in rural and 6.5% in urban areas

22. The maximum number of tax industries is which district?

(A) Darbhanga

(B) Purnia

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘DELETED’.

Explanation:

Question doesn’t specify such a district amongst given (following) 3 districts only or all districts in Bihar or in India. So, it has been deleted by commission.

23. According to the National Family Survey -5 released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on November 24, 2021, there has been a significant improvement in the sex ratio of Bihar. It has increased from ______ in 2015-2016 to _________ in 2020-2022.

(A) 1062, 1090

(B) 1040, 1070

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) released on November 24, 2021, the sex ratio in Bihar improved from 1062 females per 1000 males in 2015-2016 to 1090 females per 1000 males in 2020-2022.

Therefore, the correct option is: (A) 1062, 1090

About The National Family Health Survey-5:

NFHS-5, conducted from June 2019 to January 2021, provides key health and demographic data for India. It covers over 600,000 households across states and Union Territories.
Key findings include a decline in Total Fertility Rate (TFR) from 2.2 to 2.0, improved sex ratio in Bihar from 1062 to 1090 females per 1000 males, and a reduction in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR).
NFHS-5 tracks indicators like maternal and child health, family planning, and nutrition, reflecting progress and areas needing attention in public health.

24. According to the Bihar Economic Survey (2021-2022), what was the rate of growth of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar in 2020-2021?

(A) 3%

(B) 2%

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

According to the Bihar Economic Survey (2021-2022), the rate of growth of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar in 2020-2021 was 2.5%.

So, the correct option is: (C) 2.5%

25. Which one of the following is correct for Bihar economy?

(A) The growth rate is one of the lowest in India at 2.5%.

(B) Bihar produces mostly primary goods.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The growth rate is one of the lowest in India at 2.5%. This statement is incorrect. While Bihar’s economy has historically faced challenges, its growth rate has been improving in recent years. It’s no longer one of the lowest in India.
Bihar produces mostly primary goods. This statement is correct. Bihar’s economy is predominantly agrarian, with agriculture and allied sectors being the major contributors to its GDP.
The occupational structure of the economy is stagnant from above. This statement is also correct. Bihar’s workforce is heavily reliant on agriculture, and there has been a slow shift towards other sectors like services and industry.

Therefore, both statements (B) and (C) are correct, making (D) the most appropriate answer.

26. The Swadeshi and Boycott were adopted as the methods of struggle for the first time during the

(A) visit of the Simon Commission to India

(B) Partition of Bengal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Swadeshi and Boycott movements were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the: (B) Partition of Bengal
These strategies were prominent in the early 20th century as a response to the partition of Bengal in 1905, which was seen as an attempt to divide and rule by the British. The Swadeshi movement encouraged the use of Indian-made goods and the boycott of British products.

27. At the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in 1906, the Flag of Swaraj for India was unfurled by

(A) A. O. Hume

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

At the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in 1906, the Flag of Swaraj for India was unfurled by: (B) Dadabhai Naoroji
Dadabhai Naoroji, an eminent leader and one of the key figures in the Indian independence movement, unfurled the flag and made a significant contribution to the adoption of the goal of Swaraj (self-rule) for India at this session.

Some important facts about Dadabhai Naoroji:

Dadabhai Naoroji was born on September 4, 1825, in Mumbai (then Bombay), into a Parsi family.
He is known for his work on the economic condition of India under British rule, particularly his theory of “drain of wealth,” which argued that British policies were depleting India’s resources.
Naoroji’s book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” (1901) highlighted the negative impact of British rule on the Indian economy.
Naoroji was elected as the Member of Parliament for Finsbury Central in 1892, making him the first Indian to enter the British House of Commons.
At the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress in 1906, Naoroji played a key role in adopting the goal of Swaraj (self-rule) for India.
He served as the president of the Indian National Congress in 1886, 1893, and 1906.
Naoroji is remembered as the “Grand Old Man of India” for his significant contributions to Indian politics, economics, and his role in the early struggle for Indian independence.

28. During the freedom struggle, a parallel movement launched in the Indian States (in the States ruled by the Indian rulers such as Kashmir, Nizam’s Hyderabad, Travancore, etc.) was

(A) State People’s Movement

(B) Praja Mandal Movement

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

During the freedom struggle, a parallel movement launched in the Indian States (ruled by Indian rulers such as Kashmir, Nizam’s Hyderabad, Travancore, etc.) was the: (B) Praja Mandal Movement
The Praja Mandal Movement aimed to achieve greater political rights and self-government for the people in the princely states. It was significant in mobilizing people against autocratic rule and advocating for democratic reforms within these states.

Some facts about the Praja Mandal Movement:

The Praja Mandal Movement began in the early 20th century, aiming to secure democratic reforms and greater political rights for the people living under the rule of Indian princes in princely states.
Prominent leaders of the Praja Mandal Movement included Potti Sreeramulu in Andhra Pradesh, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in Uttar Pradesh, and Sardar Patel in Gujarat, among others. They played a crucial role in advocating for the rights of the people in these states.
The movement sought to address issues such as lack of representation, autocratic governance, and the absence of political freedoms in princely states. It was a significant part of the larger struggle for independence and democratic governance in India.
The Praja Mandal Movement led to the formation of various Praja Mandals (people’s organizations) across princely states, which organized protests, petitions, and demands for political reforms, contributing to eventual integration of these states into the Indian Union.
The Praja Mandal Movement was part of the broader Indian independence movement and complemented the efforts of the Indian National Congress and other nationalist organizations in advocating for self-rule and democratic governance throughout India.

29. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian freedom struggle is not correct?

(A) Gandhiji withdrew from the Non- Cooperation Movement due to the Chauri-Chaura Incident.

(B) Gandhiji gave his first major public speech at Banaras Hindu University.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Gandhiji did withdraw from the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the Chauri-Chaura Incident in 1922. This incident, where a violent clash occurred between the police and the protesters, led Gandhi to call off the movement as he felt it was turning violent.
Gandhiji did give a significant speech at Banaras Hindu University in 1916, which marked one of his first major public addresses after his return from South Africa.
Mahatma Gandhi was not arrested in 1921. He was, however, arrested in 1922 for his involvement in the Non-Cooperation Movement, which had gained significant momentum by then.

Thus, the correct answer is (C).

30. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?

(A) The Comrade

(B) Al-Hilal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Comrade was a weekly English-language newspaper that was published and edited by Mohammad Ali Jauhar between 1911 and 1914.
Al-Hilal was a week after week Urdu language paper set up by the Indian Muslim freedom dissident Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. The paper was eminent for its analysis of the British Raj in India and its appeal to Indian Muslims to join the developing Indian autonomy development. So, the correct answer is (B) Al-Hilal.
Maulana Zafar Ali Khan was the founding editor of the Urdu newspaper Zamindar. Zafar Ali Khan was a poet, writer, intellectual, and Muslim nationalist who supported the Pakistan Movement.

31. How did the study of history help in creating a feeling of nationalism in India towards the end of the 19th century?

(A) By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive and incapable of governing themselves

(B) By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The study of history contributed to the development of nationalism in India towards the end of the 19th century in several ways:

By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive, and incapable of governing themselves: Indian historians and scholars worked to correct and challenge the British colonial narrative that depicted Indians in a negative light. By presenting a more accurate and positive portrayal of India’s past, they helped to foster a sense of pride and self-worth among Indians, which was crucial for nationalistic feelings.
By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements: Indian nationalists and intellectuals highlighted India’s rich cultural and historical achievements to inspire a sense of pride and unity. This emphasis on a glorious past helped to cultivate a collective identity and encouraged people to envision a future where India could reclaim its historical status and dignity.
While option (C) focuses on the struggle against British rule, it is more about immediate political action rather than the role of historical study. The primary contributions of historical study to nationalism were through reinterpretation of history and the celebration of past achievements, as reflected in options (A) and (B).

(But BPSC says- Apart from option A, other options B & C are also correct.)

Therefore, the most accurate answer is: (D) More than one of the above

32. Which of the following statements are not correct regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement in the towns?

1. Only the upper caste and the rich took part in the movement.

2. The council elections were boycotted even by the Justice Party of Madras.

3. Thousands of students left government- controlled schools, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their practice.

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement in the towns, let’s evaluate each statement:

Only the upper caste and the rich took part in the movement: This statement is not correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi, attracted a wide range of participants from different social and economic backgrounds, including lower castes and the poor, not just the upper caste and rich.
The council elections were boycotted even by the Justice Party of Madras: This statement is also not correct. The Justice Party in Madras, led by P. Subrahmanyam and others, did not participate in the boycott of the council elections. The party actually continued to contest the elections and did not support the boycott.
Thousands of students left government-controlled schools, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their practice: This statement is correct. During the Non-Cooperation Movement, there was a significant impact on the educational and legal systems as many students left government schools, and numerous teachers and lawyers resigned in support of the movement.

Given this evaluation, the statements that are not correct are: 1 and 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) 1 and 2 only

33. “A Sanyasi who came to that district after a spell as an indentured labourer in Fiji, carrying a copy of Tulsidas Ramayana on his back from which he would recite verses to rural audience.” The peasant leader referred to here is

(A) Jhinguri Singh

(B) Yadunandan Sharma

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The peasant leader described in the statement is Baba Ram Chandra. Baba Ram Chandra was a prominent leader in the peasant movement in India during the early 20th century.
He had indeed worked as an indentured laborer in Fiji and carried a copy of the Tulsidas Ramayana with him. He used his knowledge of the Ramayana to connect with and mobilize rural audiences.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Baba Ram Chandra

34. Who was the founder of All India Harijan Sangh in 1932?

(A) Jagjivan Ram

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The All India Harijan Sangh was founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932.
The organization was established to promote the welfare and upliftment of the Harijans (now often referred to as Dalits) and to fight against untouchability and caste discrimination.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) Mahatma Gandhi

35. On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Attlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by

(A) August 1947

(B) January 1948

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

On February 20, 1947, British Prime Minister Clement Attlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India by 3 June 1948.
This announcement set the stage for the process leading up to Indian independence and partition, which ultimately occurred earlier, on August 15, 1947.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) June 1948

36. Who established Swaraj Dal in Bihar?

(A) Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Ramlal Shah

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Swaraj Dal in Bihar was established by Shri Krishna Singh. He was a prominent Indian nationalist leader and a key figure in the Indian independence movement, particularly in Bihar.Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Shri Krishna Singh
Shri Krishna Singh was the first Chief Minister of Bihar, serving from 1946 to 1961. His tenure marked the early years of post-independence administration in the state.
He was a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement. He was associated with the Indian National Congress and participated in various campaigns and movements against British colonial rule.

37. During the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar, in addition to making salt, the people chose to oppose the government by opposing which tax?

(A) Haathi

(B) Development

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

During the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar, in addition to making salt, the people chose to oppose the government by opposing:
Chowkidari tax: This was a tax levied on villagers to maintain a village watchman.
Forest laws: People defied forest laws by collecting forest produce without permission.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (E) None of the above

38. The elected Government of Bihar fo by Shri Krishna Singh resigned in Feb 1938 for which reason?

(A) Participation in the Freedom Struggle of India

(B) For the release of political prison

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

In February 1938, the elected government of Bihar led by Shri Krishna Singh resigned primarily in protest against the British government’s failure to release political prisoners who had been jailed for their participation in the freedom struggle.
This action was part of a broader demand for the release of political prisoners and was linked to the larger context of the Indian freedom movement.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) For the release of political prisoners

39. Who saved the life of Gandhiji in during Champaran Satyagraha?

(A) Batak Mian

(B) Hamid Ansari

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Batak Mian, was a cook who saved the life of Mahatma Gandhi from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917. He was an employee of an indigo plant at Motihari, Bihar.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Batak Mian

40. Who led cultivators in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(A) Swami Vidyanand

(B) Raj Kumar Shukla

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Swami Vidyanand was a prominent figure in the Non-Cooperation Movement, particularly in Bihar.
He played a pivotal role in mobilizing and leading the cultivators in the region against British colonial rule. Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Swami Vidyanand
His leadership was characterized by a strong emphasis on addressing the specific concerns and demands of the peasantry, such as land reforms and relief from oppressive land revenue systems.
While Raj Kumar Shukla and Shri Krishna Singh were also important leaders in the Indian independence movement, they did not play the same central role in leading the cultivators in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement as Swami Vidyanand.

41. In ancient times, the area to the south of the Ganga was known as

(A) Takshashila

(B) Chola

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

Magadha was the region south of the Ganga that held significant historical importance. It was located in present-day Bihar and played a crucial role in the development of ancient Indian kingdoms and empires.
Takshashila was located in the northwest, near the Indus River.
Chola was a southern kingdom, primarily on the Coromandel Coast.
Anarta was located in the western part of India, near the Arabian Sea.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (E) None of the above

42. When did the use of iron begin in Indian subcontinent?

(A) Around 12000 years ago

(B) Around 6000 years ago

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The use of iron in the Indian subcontinent began around 3000 years ago, which corresponds to roughly 1000 BCE. This period marks the beginning of the Iron Age in India, transitioning from the earlier Bronze Age.

The correct answer will be: (E) None of the above

43. According to the rock inscription in Sanskrit, composed around second century CE, Sudarshan Lake, an artificial reservoir, was repaired by

(A) Kanishka

(B) Rudradaman

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

According to the rock inscription in Sanskrit, composed around the 2nd century CE, the Sudarshan Lake, an artificial reservoir, was repaired by Rudradaman. Rudradaman I, a Western Kshatrapa ruler, is credited with this significant restoration work.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) Rudradaman

44. The temple of Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwa near Allahabad are the important remains of the

(A) Gupta art

(B) Rashtrakuta art

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The temple of Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwa near Allahabad are important remains of Gupta art. The Gupta period, often referred to as the Golden Age of Indian art and culture, is renowned for its significant contributions to architecture, sculpture, and painting.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Gupta art

45. In which of the following battles are the main opponents not correctly stated?

(A) First Battle of Panipat- Babur and Ibrahim Lodi

(B) Second Battle of Panipat-Tipu Sultan and Marathas

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

First Battle of Panipat: The First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526 was fought between the invading forces of Babur and Ibrahim Lodi of the Lodi dynasty. It took place in North India and marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire and the end of the Delhi Sultanate.
Second Battle of Panipat: It was fought between the forces of Samrat Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, popularly called Hemu, the Hindu king who was ruling North India from Delhi, and the army of Akbar, on November 5, 1556. It was a decisive victory for Akbar’s generals Khan Zaman I and Bairam Khan.
Battle of Haldighati: It was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between the armies of the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) Second Battle of Panipat-Tipu Sultan and Marathas

46. During the Delhi Sultanate, the designation ‘Muqaddam or Chaudhari’ was used for

(A) revenue officials

(B) village accountant

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

During the Delhi Sultanate period, the designation ‘Muqaddam’ or ‘Chaudhari’ was used for the village headman. These officials were responsible for managing the village’s affairs, including maintaining order and overseeing the collection of revenue.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) village headman

47. Tabaqat-i-Akbari, which has been sometimes considered more reliable than Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama, was written by

(A) Nizamuddin Ahmad

(B) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The author of “Tabaqat-i-Akbari” was Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad.
He was a Muslim historian of late medieval India. Also, he was Akbar’s Mir Bakhshi.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Nizamuddin Ahmad

48. Who among the following famous rulers founded a suburban township of Nagalapuram, near Vijayanagara, after his mother’s name?

(A) Harihara

(B) Bukka

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Krishnadevaraya, one of the most renowned rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded the suburban township of Nagalapuram near the capital city of Vijayanagara.
He named the town after his mother, Nagala Devi, as a tribute to her.

So, the correct answer is: (C) Krishnadevaraya

49. In 1940, Patna Women’s College was founded by which of the following societies?

(A) Society of Jesus

(B) Irish Christian Brothers

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In 1940, Patna Women’s College was founded by the Sisters of the Apostolic Carmel. This religious congregation played a significant role in establishing and managing the institution. So, the correct answer is: (C) Sisters of the Apostolic Carmel
The Sisters of the Apostolic Carmel (SAC) is a Roman Catholic religious congregation.The congregation’s mission is to educate and evangelize, focusing on the spiritual, intellectual, and social development of women and girls.

50. Who among the following headed the two Boundary Commissions set up to delineate the international frontiers between India and Pakistan in 1947?

(A) A. P. Moon

(B) A. V. Alexander

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In 1947, the two Boundary Commissions (for the western border and for the eastern border) set up to delineate the international frontiers between India and Pakistan were headed by Cyril Radcliffe.
He was tasked with demarcating the borders between India and Pakistan, leading to the creation of the Radcliffe Line, which defined the boundaries of the two newly independent nations.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Cyril Radcliffe

51. Who introduced the system of Mahalwari Settlement in Bengal?

(A) Lord Cornwallis

(B) Holt Mackenzie

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis. In it, zamindars were made the owners of land and authorised to collect rent from the peasants. They were required to pay a fixed amount to the Company every year. This amount could not be increased later, however if the zamindars failed to pay, the Company could sell their land via public auction.
Later in 1822, Mahalwari system was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in India which had elements both from zamindari as well as ryotwari system. In this system, land owners -peasants/zamindars as the case may be – were required to pay revenue in cash which was not fixed and could be increased.
This added to the miseries of the peasants who were compelled to go for cash crop (resulting in food shortage) and also had to borrow from money lenders resulting in imminent default, forfeiture of their land and emergence of bonded labour etc.
Sir William Bentinck then Governor General of Bengal (1822-28) initiated reforms in this Mahalwari regulation of 1822 and later when he was Governor General of India (1828-33), introduced these reforms in 1833.
The recommendations of Holt Makenzie an officer in the Bengal Presidency regarding revenue settlement were incorporated in a Regulation of 1822 that formed the basis of the introduction of Mahalwari settlement in parts of north and central provinces that were subject to administration of Bengal Presidency.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) Holt Mackenzie

52. In 1940, Vinoba Bhave started individual Satyagraha from

(A) Nadiad in Kheda district, Gujarat

(B) Pavnar, Maharashtra

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Acharya Vinoba Bhave started the Individual Satyagraha movement on October 17, 1940 from near his ashram in Pavnar, Maharashtra.
Mahatma Gandhi chose Bhave as the first Satyagrahi, and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. The movement’s goals were to affirm the right to speech and to show that nationalist patience was not a sign of weakness.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) Pavnar, Maharashtra

Bhave was a social reformer, scholar, and close associate of Gandhi. He was arrested for giving a speech against the British government’s participation in World War II. Thousands of other Satyagrahis were arrested after him for peacefully protesting against British rule.

53. The Congress took a critical stand over the Montford Reforms in 1918, which led to break up with the old moderate remnants (Sapru, Jayakar and Chintamani) who formed the

(A) Servants of India Society

(B) Swaraj Party

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In 1918, the Congress took a critical stand against the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, which led to a break with the old moderate remnants such as Sapru, Jayakar, and Chintamani. These leaders subsequently formed the Indian National Liberal Federation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Indian National Liberal Federation

The party was founded by Surendra Nath Banarjee, and some among its prominent leaders were Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, and M. R. Jayakar.
Tej Bahadur Sapru emerged as the most significant leader among the Liberals. At the time of the agitation against the Simon Commission, he initiated the idea of an all-parties conference in India to prepare an agreed constitutional scheme. This resulted in the ‘Nehru Report’ which proposed the Constitution and persuaded the new Labour government in Britain to offer India a Round Table Conference.

54. The Cabinet Mission was sent to India for which of the following?

1. To establish a national government

2. To work out a constitutional arrangement for the transfer of power

3. To work out the details of Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Cabinet Mission:

Cabinet Mission was a high-powered mission sent in February 1946 to India by the Atlee Government (British Prime Minister.)
The mission had three British cabinet members – Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, & and A.V. Alexander.

Mission objectives:

To discuss the transfer of power from British to Indian leadership. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
To obtain an agreement with the Indian leaders as to the framing of a constitution for India.
To formulate a constitution-making body (the Constituent Assembly of India).
To establish an Executive Council with the support of the major Indian parties.

Hence, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

Cabinet Mission Plan:

Rejection of the demand for a full-fledged Pakistan.
Grouping of existing provincial assemblies into three sections
Three-tier executive and legislature at provincial, section, and union levels.
A constituent assembly was to be elected by provincial assemblies through proportional representation.
A common centre would control the defence, communication, and external affairs.

55. Who among the following made an offer to Humayun that he would surrender Bihar and pay an annual tribute of 10 lakh dinars if he was allowed to retain Bengal?

(A) Sher Khan

(B) Bairam Khan

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The offer to Humayun to surrender Bihar and pay an annual tribute of 10 lakh dinars in exchange for retaining Bengal was made by Sher Shah Suri (also known as Sher Khan). Humayun, however, declined the offer because Bengal was the land of wealth, rich in manufacturing, and a hub for international trade. Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Sher Khan
Sher Shah Suri (1486 – 22 May 1545), born Farīd Khān, was the founder of the Suri Empire in India, with its capital in Sasaram in modern-day Bihar. He introduced the currency of rupee. Sher Shah of Sur took control of the Mughal Empire in 1540.
His reorganization of the empire laid the foundations for the later Mughal emperors, notably Akbar, son of Humayun.

56. The Vikramshila University was established by

(A) Dharmapala

(B) Devapala

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Vikramashila University was established by the Pala emperor Dharmapala (783 to 820 CE) in response to a supposed decline in the quality of scholarship at Nalanda. It was destroyed by the forces of Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khalji around 1193.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Dharmapala

The university was located near the Vikramshila village, in present-day Bhagalpur district, Bihar, India. It was strategically situated on the banks of the Ganges River.
The university specialized in Buddhist studies and was a major hub for scholars and monks. It offered a broad range of subjects, including Buddhist philosophy, logic, and grammar, and was known for its rigorous academic environment.

57. Who among the following was the first Governor of Bihar?

(A) Sir James David Sifton

(B) Sir Hugh Dow

(D) More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Sir James David Sifton was the Governor of Bihar and Orissa from 7 April 1932 to 31 March 1936 and then Governor of Bihar from 1 April 1936 to 10 March 1937.
He was the first Governor of Bihar after division of province from Orissa.

Hence the answer option’A’ is correct

58. Who was the author of Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences?

(A) J. P. Narayan

(B) Karpoori Thakur

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the author of “Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences”. It was written in 1949. This book reflects on Mahatma Gandhi’s relationship with Bihar and his influence on the region, sharing personal anecdotes and experiences.
He was indeed a prolific writer with several significant literary works.

Here’s a brief overview of the literary works you mentioned:

“Satyagraha at Champaran” (1922) – This work details the Champaran Satyagraha led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, which was a pivotal movement in the Indian independence struggle. It provides insights into Gandhi’s early efforts in leading non-violent resistance against British colonial rule.
“India Divided” (1946) – This book analyzes the political and social circumstances leading up to the partition of India. It reflects Dr. Prasad’s thoughts on the division of the country and its impact on Indian society.
“Atmakatha” (1946) – Known in English as “The Story of My Life,” this autobiography provides a comprehensive account of Dr. Prasad’s life, including his involvement in the freedom movement and his experiences as a leader.
“Bapu ke Kadmon Mein” (1954) – This book translates to “In the Footsteps of Bapu” and offers reflections and tributes to Mahatma Gandhi, emphasizing his impact and legacy.

59. Which is the oldest church in Bihar?

(A) Luke’s Church

(B) Stephen’s Church

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Padri Ki Haveli: This is indeed the oldest church in Bihar, located in Patna. It was originally constructed by Roman Catholics in 1713 and redesigned by the Venetian architect Tirreto in 1772. It has withstood several assaults, including those by Nawab Mir Qasim and during the First War of Independence in 1857. It is also known as the Visitation of the Blessed Virgin Mary.
Luke’s Church: Located in the Danapur cantonment, about 12 kilometers from Patna’s Gandhi Maidan, it was erected by British soldiers in 1830. This makes it newer compared to Padri Ki Haveli.
Stephen’s Church: Also located in Patna, it is not as old as Padri Ki Haveli.

So, considering the historical timelines, Padri Ki Haveli remains the oldest church in Bihar.

60. The late actor Kumudlal Ganguly, also known by his stage name Ashok Kumar, was born in which of the following cities of Bihar?

(A) Munger

(B) Bhagalpur

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The late actor Kumudlal Ganguly, popularly known by his stage name Ashok Kumar, was born in Bhagalpur, Bihar. Therefore, the correct answer is: (B) Bhagalpur
He was born into a Bengali Hindu Brahmin family, with his mother Gouri Devi and father Kunjlal Ganguly.
He received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1988, the highest honor in Indian cinema, and the Padma Bhushan in 1999 for his contributions to the field.
Ashok Kumar is renowned for his roles in films like Achhut Kannya (1936), Bandhan (1940), and the landmark blockbuster Kismet (1943).

61. Which of the following Union Ministries recently launched the YUVA 2.0 Scheme in 2022?

(A) Health and Family Welfare Ministry

(B) Education Ministry

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The YUVA 2.0 Scheme was launched by the Education Ministry in 2022 as part of the Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav or India @75 project. So, the correct answer is: (B) Education Ministry
Objective: The scheme aims to promote reading and writing across India and to highlight Indian writing on an international stage. It seeks to foster a culture of literature among young authors and showcase their perspectives on democracy.
Target Audience: The scheme is designed for young and budding authors below the age of 30.
Theme: For YUVA 2.0, the theme is “Democracy,” focusing on institutions, events, people, and constitutional values, both past and present.
Scope: It supports authors writing on a range of subjects that promote Indian culture, heritage, and knowledge globally.
Background: The first edition of the YUVA scheme saw significant participation from young authors in 22 regional languages and English. Its theme was “National Movement of India,” focusing on topics such as “Unsung Heroes” and “Role of Unknown Places in Freedom Movement.”

This scheme is part of the broader effort to celebrate and enrich Indian literary culture and encourage new voices in the literary world.

62. The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?

(A) 40

(B) 233

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Ministry of Home Affairs completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s 576 languages.
So, the correct answer is: (C) 576
The home ministry said the Linguistic Survey of India (LSI) is a regular research activity in the country since the 6th Five Year Plan.
Definition: In the survey, “mother tongue” is the language designated by the respondent and may not necessarily align with the actual linguistic medium used.
Census Data (2011): According to the 2011 linguistic census data, over 19,500 languages or dialects are spoken as mother tongues in India. After scrutiny and rationalization, these were grouped into 121 distinct mother tongues.

Statistics

Hindi: The most widely spoken mother tongue in India, with 43.6% of the population (approximately 52.8 crore people) declaring it as their mother tongue.
Bengali: The second most spoken mother tongue, with 9.7 crore people (about 8% of the population) identifying it as their mother tongue.

63. Which of the following committees submitted a report on gas pricing, recommending complete pricing freedom from January 1, 2026?

(A) Arun Goel Committee

(B) Kirit Parikh Committee

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The committee that submitted a report on gas pricing, recommending complete pricing freedom from January 1, 2026, is the Kirit Parikh Committee.

Kirit Parikh Committee

Full Name: The committee is formally known as the “Kirit S. Parikh Committee on Gas Pricing.”
Purpose: The committee was established to review and recommend a new pricing mechanism for natural gas in India.
Recommendations: The Kirit Parikh Committee recommended moving towards complete pricing freedom for natural gas by January 1, 2026. This means that the price of natural gas would be determined by market forces rather than being regulated by the government.
Rationale: The recommendation aimed to provide a market-driven approach to gas pricing, which would potentially lead to better efficiency, investment, and development in the gas sector.

Other Committees

Arun Goel Committee: To strengthen the Capital Goods (CG) Sector and contribute more actively in the national goal of achieving a USD 5 trillion economy and a USD 1 trillion manufacturing sector
P. K. Mohanty Committee: Formed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to address issues related to financial inclusion.

64. Which of the following cities was not conferred with five-star garbage-free city rank according to Swachh Survekshan, 2022?

(A) Surat

(B) Bhopal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

According to the Swachh Survekshan 2022 results, the following cities were conferred with the five-star garbage-free city rank:

Surat
Bhopal
Navi Mumbai
Mysuru
Visakhapatnam
Tirupati

Based on this information, the correct answer is: (E) None of the above

All the cities listed in the options (Surat, Bhopal, and Navi Mumbai) were indeed conferred with the five-star garbage-free city rank.

Swachh Survekshan Overview:

Introduction: Swachh Survekshan, conducted since 2016, is the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey. It aims to promote cleanliness, hygiene, and sanitation across urban areas in India. The survey encourages cities to improve their service delivery and compete in creating cleaner urban environments.
Conducted Under: The survey is conducted under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban), a flagship program aimed at achieving a clean and open-defecation-free India.

Swachh Survekshan 2022 Awards:

Cities with a Population of More Than 1 Lakh:

Cleanest City: Indore, known as the “City of Lakes and Palaces,” secured the title of the Cleanest City.
Second Cleanest City: Surat (for the second time in a row).
Third Cleanest City: Navi Mumbai.

Cities with a Population of Less Than 1 Lakh:

First Position: Panchgani (Maharashtra).
Second Position: Patan (Chhattisgarh).
Third Position: Karad (Maharashtra).
Best Ganga Town: Awarded to: Haridwar (Uttarakhand) for cities with more than 1 lakh population.
Fast Mover City Awarded to: Shivamogga (Karnataka).

65. The Prime Minister inaugurated the first greenfield airport ‘Donyi Polo Airport’ in which of the following locations?

(A) Dholka

(B) Itanagar

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Prime Minister inaugurated the first greenfield airport, Donyi Polo Airport, in Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh. So, the correct answer is: (B) Itanagar
It is the first greenfield airport in Northeast India. Greenfield projects refer to airports constructed on undeveloped land, as opposed to expanding existing facilities.
With the inauguration of Donyi Polo Airport, all eight northeastern state capitals now have operational airports. This marks a significant milestone in enhancing connectivity in the region.
The name Donyi Polo reflects the traditional and cultural heritage of Arunachal Pradesh. “Donyi” refers to the Sun, and “Polo” refers to the Moon, symbolizing the indigenous reverence for these celestial bodies in the region.
The airport is the seventh airport built in Northeast India in the last eight years, showcasing a rapid expansion in aviation infrastructure in the region.

66. Which animal has been approved as a food animal by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in November 2022?

(A) Himalayan yak

(B) Mountain goat

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In November 2022, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) approved the Himalayan yak as a food animal. This decision was made to promote the use of yak meat and improve livelihoods in the Himalayan region.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Himalayan yak

Approval: Following a recommendation from the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD).
Objective: The inclusion of the yak in the conventional milk and meat industry aims to address and reverse the decline in its population by creating economic incentives for its conservation and utilization.
Socio-Cultural-Economic Role: Yaks play a vital role for pastoral nomads in the Himalayan region, providing nutritional support and livelihood security in an area where other agricultural activities are limited and where yaks are one of the few animals that can survive.
Transhumance System: Yaks are traditionally reared in a transhumance system—a nomadic, unorganised, and arduous method of livestock management. This system involves seasonal movement of livestock between high and low-altitude areas.
Population Decline: The yak population in India has been decreasing alarmingly. According to the 2019 census, the population has dropped to approximately 58,000, which is a 25% decrease from the 2012 census.
Conservation Concern: The significant decline in the yak population is a major concern for both the government and animal genetic diversity conservationists, highlighting the need for measures to protect and preserve this unique high-altitude species.

67. India’s first floating financial literacy camp was organized recently by India Post Payments Bank in which of the following locations?

(A) Srinagar

(B) Andaman Islands

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) conducted India’s first floating financial literacy camp called ‘Niveshak Didi’ in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
This innovative camp aims to enhance financial literacy among women.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Srinagar

Niveshak Didi Initiative

The ‘Niveshak Didi’ initiative is designed to promote financial literacy “by the women, for the women.” It recognizes that women in rural areas may feel more comfortable discussing financial matters with other women.
Collaboration: The initiative is launched in collaboration with the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) and operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA). This partnership enhances the outreach and effectiveness of the financial literacy programs.
Topics Covered: The camp sessions cover various topics, including banking and financial products, the importance of integrating into mainstream financial services, risk protection related to investments, and measures to prevent fraud.

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)

IPPB is established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communication, with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. The bank aims to be the most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for the common man in India.
IPPB’s fundamental mandate is to bridge the gap for the unbanked and under-banked populations. It leverages a vast network of 160,000 post offices and 400,000 postal employees to reach remote areas, especially focusing on rural regions.

68. The President of India inaugurated PARAM KAMRUPA Supercomputer facility at which of the following IITs?

(A) Kharagpur

(B) Bombay

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The President of India inaugurated the PARAM KAMRUPA supercomputer facility at IIT Guwahati.

So, the correct answer is: (C) Guwahati

The PARAM KAMRUPA supercomputer facility was inaugurated by President Droupadi Murmu. The inauguration was part of a broader event that also included the launch of various government schemes and welfare projects.
National Supercomputing Mission (NSM): PARAM KAMRUPA was established under the National Supercomputing Mission, a collaborative initiative between the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Performance: The supercomputer boasts a performance capability of 838 teraflops (trillion floating-point operations per second). For context, an average gaming PC has a processing power of around 3-4 teraflops, highlighting the advanced computational power of PARAM KAMRUPA.

69. In the 90th Indian Air Force Day, celebrated on 8th October, 2022, an hour-long air display of eighty aircrafts was carried out over which of the following locations?

(A) Gateway of India, Mumbai

(B) Dal Lake, Jammu and Kashmir

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

On the 90th Indian Air Force Day, celebrated on October 8, 2022, an hour-long air display of eighty aircraft was carried out over Sukhna Lake, Chandigarh, a city and union territory in northern India.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Sukhna Lake, Chandigarh

About Sukhna Lake

It lies at the foothills of the Shivalik range, near the eastern part of the city.
The lake was created in 1958 by damming the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream. It was designed by the architect Le Corbusier, who was also responsible for the city’s master plan.

70. Which month of the year is celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month under the Poshan Abhiyaan of the Government of India?

(A) May

(B) September

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month is celebrated in September each year under the Poshan Abhiyaan of the Government of India.

So, the correct answer is:(B) September

About Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month

Rashtriya Poshan Maah is part of the larger Poshan Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) launched by the Government of India in 2018. The mission aims to reduce malnutrition and anemia among children, adolescents, and women through a comprehensive approach.
Objective: The primary goal of Rashtriya Poshan Maah is to promote better nutritional practices among the population, especially among pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children. It focuses on improving the overall nutritional status and addressing issues related to malnutrition.
Activities and Programs: During Rashtriya Poshan Maah, various activities are organized, including community-based programs, workshops, awareness campaigns, and educational sessions on nutrition. These activities are often conducted in collaboration with local health workers, schools, and community organizations.
Focus Areas: The campaign emphasizes improving maternal and child nutrition, promoting breastfeeding, encouraging the consumption of a diverse and balanced diet, and addressing issues such as stunting, wasting, and anemia. It also aims to enhance the nutritional knowledge of the general public and create a supportive environment for healthy eating practices.

71. What is the name of recently launched fina module of China’s Tiangong Space Station?

(A) Tianhe

(B) Wentian

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The name of the recently launched final module of China’s Tiangong Space Station is Mengtian.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Mengtian

About Mengtian

The Mengtian module is a crucial component of China’s Tiangong space station. It serves as a laboratory module where astronauts can conduct experiments and research.
Name: “Mengtian” translates to “Celestial Dream.”
Launch: It was launched aboard a Long March-5B carrier rocket.
Role: Together with the Wentian module, it forms the laboratory section of the Tiangong station.
It docks with the Tianhe core module, where the crew lives and works.

72. Which of the following is the world’s largest volcano erupted for the first time in 38 years?

(A) Mount St. Helens

(B) Mauna Loa

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The world’s largest volcano, which erupted for the first time in 38 years, is Mauna Loa.

So, the correct answer is:(B) Mauna Loa

About Mauna Loa

Location: Mauna Loa, located on the Big Island of Hawaii, is the largest volcano in the world by volume and area covered. It extends over 5,000 square kilometers (around 2,000 square miles) and rises about 13,681 feet (4,170 meters) above sea level.
Recent Eruption: Mauna Loa erupted for the first time in 38 years on November 27, 2022. This eruption marked a significant geological event as the volcano had been quiet since its last eruption in March 1984.
Shield Volcano: Mauna Loa is classified as a shield volcano, characterized by its broad, gentle slopes formed by the flow of low-viscosity basaltic lava. This type of volcano tends to produce relatively non-explosive eruptions compared to more volatile volcanic types.

73. Who among the following recently received the 2022 Booker Prize for his novel, The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida?

(A) Michael Ondaatje

(B) Pradeep Mathew

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The 2022 Booker Prize was awarded to Shehan Karunatilaka for his novel The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Shehan Karunatilak

About Booker Prize

The Booker Prize, originally known as the Man Booker Prize, is one of the most prestigious literary awards in the English-speaking world.
The prize has been awarded to many renowned authors, including Salman Rushdie, Margaret Atwood, and Hilary Mantel.
The Booker Prize is awarded annually for the best original novel written in English and published in the UK or Ireland.
History: Established in 1969, the prize was initially known as the “Man Booker Prize” due to sponsorship by the Man Group. In 2019, the prize became known simply as the “Booker Prize” after the end of the Man Group’s sponsorship.

74. What was the theme of the World Space Week, 2022?

(A) Women in Space

(B) Satellites Improve Life

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The theme of World Space Week 2022 was “Space and Sustainability”.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Space and Sustainability

About World Space Week 2022

Declaration and Dates: World Space Week is celebrated annually from October 4th to October 10th. These dates commemorate two significant events: the launch of Sputnik 1 on October 4, 1957, and the signing of the Outer Space Treaty on October 10, 1967.
Established by UNGA: The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared World Space Week on December 6, 1999, to recognize the contributions of space research and technology to human advancement and development.

Objectives:

Enhance space outreach and education globally.
Educate people about the benefits of space.
Promote the use of space for sustainable economic development.
Demonstrate public support for space initiatives.
Inspire young people to engage in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM).
Foster global cooperation in the space sector

75. Which of the following laboratories claimed a historic nuclear fusion breakthrough in December 2022?

(A) Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory

(B) Oak Ridge National Laboratory

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In December 2022, scientists at the Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory achieved a significant milestone in nuclear fusion by obtaining a net gain in energy from the fusion reaction. This is considered a major advancement in the field of fusion energy.

So, the correct answer is:(A) Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory

The experiment involved using a powerful 192-beam laser to heat and compress a small capsule filled with hydrogen fuel. The laser generated temperatures of around 100 million degrees Celsius, significantly higher than the center of the Sun.
The approach used in this experiment is known as Inertial Fusion, where intense laser beams compress the hydrogen fuel to extremely high pressures, leading to the fusion of hydrogen atoms and the release of energy.
The hydrogen capsule was compressed to pressures more than 100 billion times that of Earth’s atmosphere. This compression caused the capsule to implode, facilitating the fusion reaction and resulting in a net gain of energy.

76. Which of the following is Collins Dictionary’s word of the year 2022?

(A) Permacrisis

(B) Carolean

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Collins Dictionary’s Word of the Year for 2022 is “Permacrisis.”

So, the correct answer is:(A) Permacrisis

Permacrisis describes a state of ongoing, continuous crisis where multiple challenges or disruptions persist without resolution. It reflects a sense of constant instability and persistent difficulties, rather than temporary or isolated events.

77. Which of the following countries, along with Senegal, launched the International Drought Resilience Alliance during COP27?

(A) Italy

(B) Germany

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

International Drought Resilience Alliance Initiated during COP27 by Senegal and Spain.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Spain

Purpose: Aims to enhance global drought resilience through collaborative efforts.
Focus: Addresses drought impacts on communities, agriculture, and ecosystems.
Goals: Promotes innovative solutions and supports affected regions.

About COP

Event: COP stands for Conference of the Parties to the UNFCCC.
Purpose: Annual meetings to advance climate change agreements.
Participants: Includes world leaders, negotiators, and stakeholders.
Focus: Discusses climate action, finance, and global commitments.
Outcome: Develops and implements international climate policies.
COP27, held in Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt, in November 2022, was the 27th UNFCCC conference focusing on climate action.
Key topics included climate finance, adaptation, and loss and damage. Notable outcomes included the launch of new initiatives and negotiations on funding mechanisms for vulnerable nations.

78. The Embassy of which country a GI Tag for ‘Nihonshu’ for the first time in India?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Embassy of Japan secured a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for ‘Nihonshu’ (Japanese sake) for the first time in India.

So, the correct answer is:(B) Japan

About Nihonshu

Nihonshu is the Japanese term for sake, a traditional Japanese rice wine.
Production: Made from fermented rice, water, yeast, and koji mold.
Cultural Significance: Holds deep cultural importance in Japan’s culinary heritage.

79. Which of the following space agmcies announced that it had successfully used steam to propel its EQUULEUS spacecraft?

(A) NASA

(B) SUPARCO

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The space agency that announced the successful use of steam to propel its EQUULEUS spacecraft is JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency).

So, the correct answer is:(C) JAXA

About Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)

Role: Japan’s national space agency responsible for space exploration, satellite development, and research.
Founded: Established in 2003 through the merger of three space agencies.
Notable Missions: Includes missions like Hayabusa2 and the International Space Station (ISS) contributions.
Objectives: Focuses on advancing space technology and international space cooperation.

80. What is the name of Tesla bumaneid roht launched in October 2022?

(A) Optimus

(B) Atlas

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In October 2022, Tesla unveiled its humanoid robot named Optimus.

So, the correct answer is:(A) Optimus

About Tesla

Founded: Established in 2003 by Martin Eberhard and Marc Tarpenning, with Elon Musk joining later (2004).
Products: Specializes in electric vehicles, solar energy products, and battery storage solutions.
CEO: Elon Musk, known for innovation in electric transportation and renewable energy.
Notable: Known for models like the Model S, Model 3, and innovations such as the Cybertruck and Optimus robot.

81. The first floating solar power plant’ has been built at which place in Bihar?

(A) Dilbarpur, Darbhanga

(B)Jamalpur, Darbhanga

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The first floating solar power plant in Bihar has been built at Kadirabad, Darbhanga.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Kadirabad, Darbhanga

Capacity: This plant has a capacity of 2 megawatts (MW).
Purpose: Aims to enhance renewable energy production and utilize water bodies for solar energy generation.
Innovation: Floating solar technology helps in reducing land use and provides cooling benefits to the solar panels, improving efficiency.
Benefits: Contributes to Bihar’s renewable energy targets and offers an innovative solution for areas with limited land availability.

82. According to the Economic Survey for the year 2019-2020, which district has lowest per capita income?

(A) Sheobar

(B) Araria

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to the Economic Survey for the year 2019-2020, the district with the lowest per capita income in Bihar is Sheohar.

So, the correct answer is:(A) Sheohar

The district with the highest per capita income in Bihar is Patna.
The per capita income of Bihar was reported to be approximately ₹34,198 (₹34,198 at current prices).

About per capita income

Definition: Measures the average income earned by each individual in a specific area.
Calculation: Total income of the area divided by its population.
Indicator: Reflects economic health and living standards.
Usage: Helps compare income levels across regions and time periods.

83. According to the NITI Aayog SDG Report for the year 2020-2021, how much did the State of Bihar score?

(A) 22 out of 100

(B) 35 out of 100

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

According to the NITI Aayog SDG Report for 2020-2021, Bihar scored 52 out of 100 on the SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) index.

So, the correct answer is:(C) 52 out of 100

About SDG Report

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Report is an assessment tool used to evaluate progress towards achieving the United Nations’ 17 SDGs.
Purpose: The report measures how states perform on various goals like poverty reduction, health, and education.
Frequency: Released annually to track and guide India’s development efforts.
Importance: Helps in identifying areas needing attention and guiding policy decisions for sustainable development.

About NITI Aayog

he National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established in 2015.
It aims to foster cooperative federalism and provide strategic and technical support to states.

84. Which sport has been included in the Khelo India Women’s Tournament for the first time?

(A) Cricket

(B) Track Cycling

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

For the first time, Track Cycling has been included in the Khelo India Women’s Tournament.

So, the correct answer is:(B) Track Cycling

About Khelo India Women’s Tournament

The Khelo India Women’s Tournament is a sports initiative aimed at promoting women’s participation in athletics across India.
The tournament focuses on nurturing talent, enhancing grassroots development, and encouraging women’s engagement in competitive sports.

About Khelo India programme

The Khelo India programme was launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. The program was introduced to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level.
It aims to identify and nurture young talent, improve infrastructure, and foster a sports culture.
The initiative includes various tournaments, training programs, and financial support for athletes.

85. Which of the following has been awarded the Geographical Indication (Gl) Tag in August 2022?

(A) Applique (Khatwa) Work of Bihar

(B) Sikki Grass Products of Bihar

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In August 2022, the following was awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag: (C) Mithila Makhana

Other GI Tag Products of Bihar with year

Sujani Embroidery (2006): UNESCO Seal of Excellence 2019, which is also called the Seal Award, was given to Sujani art. Sujani is a form of embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar in India.
Madhubani Paintings (2oo7): Madhubani painting, also referred to as Mithila Art (as it flourishes in the Mithila region of Bihar), is characterized by line drawings filled in by bright colours and contrasts or patterns. This style of painting has been traditionally done by the women of the region, though today men are also involved to meet the demand.
Sikki Grass Products (2007): Bihar, the heartland of Arts & Culture in India preserves a special craftswomenship in the form of Sikki Art. Sikki is grown in the wet and marshy land, dried and cut to make utilitarian items like basket, bag, hat, coasters, dauda, mauni, chataayi.
Bhagalpur Silk (2013):The finest texture of Silk springing out from the essence of nature and known as the ‘Queen of all fabrics’, Bhagalpuri Silk is very well known for its unique and striking resilience and superior quality.
Handicraft Applique (Khatwa- 2016): Khatwa, an appliqué work that originated in Bihar, was locally used to create decorative tents, canopies, wall handguns, and home furnishings. Khatwa is an art of creating designs and narratives on fabric, using fabric.
Bhagalpuri Zardalu (2018): A variety of mango from Bhagalpur, known for its distinct taste and quality.
Katarni Rice (2018): A traditional aromatic rice variety from Bihar, appreciated for its unique fragrance and flavor.
Magahi Paan (2018): A special variety of betel leaf from Magadh regions of four districts-Aurangabad, Gaya, Nawada, and Nalanda. It is known for its distinct flavor and cultural importance.
Shahi Litchi (2018): Bihar’s Shahi litchi has received the geographical indication tag in 2018. The fruit is mostly grown in Muzaffarpur and its neighboring districts of East Champaran, Vaishali, Samastipur and Begusarai.
Silao Ka Khaja (2018): Silao Khaja, the traditional delicacy of Nalanda district of Bihar. Khaja is a multilayered, crispy sweet and conventional Bihari dessert. Of all the places you could get Khaja from, Silao- a town in the Nalanda district of Bihar- is utterly prominent.

86. Which of the following has been added to the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2022?

(A) Astronomical Observatory at the Langat Singh College

(B) Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

In the year 2022, no site from India has been added to the UNESCO world heritage list.

Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara at Nalanda was indeed listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2016.
Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2002.
Astronomical Observatory at Langat Singh College is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Therefore, Option E: None of the above is correct.

About UNESCO

UNESCO: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
Established: November 16, 1945.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
Mission: Promote international collaboration in education, science, culture, and communication.
Notable: Oversees the World Heritage List, safeguarding cultural and natural heritage globally.

87. In the year 2020, Bihar gained the _______ rank out of 36 States in the Ease of Doing Business, awarded by Business Reforms rank Action Plan (BRAP).

(A) 23rd

(B) 24th

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

Ease of Doing Business 2020: Bihar was ranked 26th out of 36 states in the Ease of Doing Business rankings under the Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP).

So, the correct answer is:(E) None of the above

BRAP 2020 Reforms: The BRAP 2020 featured 301 reform points across 15 business regulation areas, including Access to Information, Single Window System, Labor, Environment, and more.
Additional Reforms: Introduced 118 new changes and 72 sector-specific action points in areas like Trade License, Healthcare, and Tourism.
Challenges for Bihar: Limited industrial development, inadequate supporting infrastructure, and challenges in transportation and accommodation have impacted the state’s performance.
Assessment Impact: The BRAP rankings highlight Bihar’s need for further industrial and infrastructure development to improve its business environment.

88. Ganga Jal Aapurti Yojana was inaugurated by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on November 28, 2022 at which place?

(A) Lakhisarai

(B) Rajgir

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Sri Nitish Kumar inaugurated Ganga Jal Apurti Yojana at Rajgir on 27-11-2022 and at Bodh Gaya on 28-11-2022. The question refers to 28-11-2022 only. Hence the answer option ‘C’ is correct.

About Ganga Jal Aapurti Yojana

Objective: To collect excess Ganga river water during the monsoon season for treatment, storage, and delivery to Rajgir, Gaya, and Bodhgaya.
Investment: The first phase of the project involves an investment of ₹4,000 crores.
Phase 1 Details:
Water will be transported from Hathidah (near Mokama) to the three cities using large pumps.
11 powerful pumps have been installed for this purpose.
Coverage:
Rajgir: Approximately 8,031 homes in 19 wards.
Gaya: Around 75,000 homes in 53 wards.
Bodh Gaya: About 6,000 homes in 19 wards.
Water Supply: The program aims to deliver 135 litres of pure drinking water per person daily.

89. Which of the following associations/boards declared equal pay for men and women players in October 2022?

(A) Bihar Cricket Association

(B) Board of Control for Cricket in India

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

In October 2022, the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) declared equal pay for men and women players. So, the correct answer is: (B) Board of Control for Cricket in India

About BCCI

The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is the governing body for cricket in India. Founded in 1928, it oversees domestic and international cricket activities in India. The BCCI is known for its influential role in global cricket and significant financial investments in the sport.
As of September 2024, the President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is Roger Binny. He has been serving in this role since October 2022, succeeding Sourav Ganguly.

90. The urbanization of the State has increased very rapidly in the last ten years. According to the 2011 Census, the level of urbanization in Bihar was just _________ percent, which has increased to _______ percent at present.

(A) 11.3, 15.3

(B) 12.2, 13.1

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to the 2011 Census, the level of urbanization in Bihar was 11.3 percent. As of recent estimates, this has increased to around 15.3 percent. Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) 11.3, 15.3

Other Facts

Urban Population Distribution (2011 Census): Bihar had 3.1 percent of the total urban population of India.

Urbanization Disparity (2011 Census)

Patna district: Highest urbanization at 44.3 percent.
Munger district: 28.3 percent urbanization.
Nalanda district: 26.2 percent urbanization.
Apart from these, other districts had less than 25 percent urbanization.

Per Capita Income (2019-20)

Top Per Capita Income:

Patna: Rs 131.1 thousand.
Begusarai: Rs 51.4 thousand.

Low Per Capita Income (2019-20):

Sheohar: Rs 19.6 thousand.
Araria: Rs 20.6 thousand.

91. In the end of its mountainous journey Attock, the Indus River is joined by which river from Afghanistan?

(A) Amu Darya

(B) Kabul River

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

At the end of its mountainous journey near Attock, the Indus River is joined by the Kabul River from Afghanistan. So, the correct answer is:(B) Kabul River
The Kabul River originates in the Hindu Kush mountains of Afghanistan and flows southeast through the Khyber Pass into Pakistan. It joins the Indus River near Attock. The river plays a crucial role in the region’s agriculture and serves as a significant water source for both countries.

92. Which one of the following is the well- publicised wildlife campaign in the world. launched in 1973?

(A) Project Tiger

(B) Lion Project

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The well-publicized wildlife campaign launched in 1973 is Project Tiger. It was initiated in India to protect the Bengal tiger and conserve its natural habitat.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Project Tiger

About Project Tiger

Launch: Initiated in 1973 to protect tiger populations in India.
Objective: Ensure tiger survival by establishing Tiger Reserves.
Initial Reserves: Started with 9 reserves covering 9,115 sq. km.
Census Methods: Transitioned from unreliable pug-mark method to accurate camera-trap techniques.
Population Growth: From 1,827 tigers in 1972 to an estimated 3,167-3,925 in 2022, with a growth rate of 6.1% per year.
Global Status: India houses three-quarters of the world’s tigers.
Current Reserves: As of 2018, 55 reserves covering 78,135.956 sq. km, or 2.38% of India’s land area.

93. Which of the following statements is true about troposphere?

(A) It is the topmost layer of the atmosphere

(B) The temperature at this layer increase with the height.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct statement about the troposphere is: (C) Its average height is 13 km.

Here’s a brief explanation for each option:

False: The troposphere is not the topmost layer; it is the lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere. The topmost layer is the exosphere.
False: In the troposphere, the temperature generally decreases with height, not increases.
True: The average height of the troposphere is around 13 km, though it varies slightly depending on location (higher at the equator and lower at the poles).

94. The southern continent broken from Pangaea is called

(A) Laurasia

(B) Gondwanaland

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The southern continent that broke from the supercontinent Pangaea is called: (B) Gondwanaland

Here’s a brief explanation:

Gondwanaland: This was the name given to the southern part of Pangaea that eventually broke apart and formed several continents, including South America, Africa, Antarctica, Australia, and the Indian subcontinent.
Laurasia: This refers to the northern part of Pangaea that eventually broke apart into North America, Europe, and Asia.
Pacific Ocean: This is an ocean, not a continent.

95. The Arctic region and the Antarctic continent are situated near

(A) the Sahara Desert

(B) the North and South Poles

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Arctic region and the Antarctic continent are situated near: (B) the North and South Poles

Here’s a brief explanation:

Arctic Region: This is located around the North Pole.
Antarctic Continent: This is located around the South Pole.
Sahara Desert: This is a desert in Northern Africa, not related to the Arctic or Antarctic regions.
Amazon Basin: This is a tropical rainforest region in South America, also unrelated to the Arctic or Antarctic regions.

96. Which States of India have common border with Myanmar?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram

(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Mizoram

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The States of India that have a common border with Myanmar are:(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram

Here’s a brief explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh: Shares a border with Myanmar in the northeast.
Nagaland: Shares a border with Myanmar to the east.
Manipur: Shares a border with Myanmar to the southeast.
Mizoram: Shares a border with Myanmar to the south.
Assam: Does not share a direct border with Myanmar.
Tripura: Does not share a border with Myanmar.

Thus, the correct option is (A).

97. Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from marine biodiversity perspective, comprising 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, seagrasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?

(A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising 21 islands with diverse marine environments including estuaries, beaches, forests, seagrasses, coral reefs, salt marshes, and mangroves, is: (A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Here’s a brief explanation:

Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve: Gulf of Mannar situated in the southeastern coast of India extending from Rameswaram in the north to Tuticorin in the south along with its marine environment has been declared as India’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve.
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve: The Nanda Devi National Park, established in 1982, is located in the Chamoli Garhwal district of Uttarakhand, northern India. Encompassing the peak of Nanda Devi, the park lies at elevations exceeding 3,500 meters above sea level. Renowned for its high-altitude ecosystems and rich biodiversity, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, recognized for its pristine natural environment and unique flora and fauna adapted to the mountainous terrain.
Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve: The Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve in West Bengal, India, is one of the largest biosphere reserves, covering 9,630 square kilometers. Located across South and North 24 Parganas districts, it is bounded by the Muri Ganga, Hariabhanga, and Raimangal rivers. This reserve features rich aquatic and terrestrial biodiversity and acts as a crucial fish nursery. It provides habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger and includes protected areas like Sundarbans National Park and various wildlife sanctuaries.

98. In which type of climatic region do Uttar Pradesh and Bihar fall as per Köppen’s classification scheme?

(A) Cwg

(B) Aw

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to Koppen’s categorization system, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are classified as Cwg types of climate regions. Aw covers south India, not UP/ Bihar. The correct answer is Cwg.

Köppen Classification

Developed by Wladimir Köppen in 1884, with updates in 1918 and 1936.
Core Concept: Links climate with vegetation distribution.

Köppen’s Indian Climatic Regions:

Amw: Monsoon with short dry winter.
As: Monsoon with dry season in high sun period.
Aw: Tropical savanna.
BShw: Semi-arid steppe.
BWhw: Hot desert.
Cwg: Monsoon with dry winters.
Dfc: Cold, humid winters with shorter summers.
Et: Tundra.
E: Polar.

99. India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to how many nautical miles/km from the coast?

(A) 16 nautical miles (about 25.9 km)

(B) 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km)

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

India’s territorial limit extends up to: (B) 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km)
This distance marks the extent of India’s territorial waters from its coast. Beyond this, India has an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extending up to 200 nautical miles (approximately 370 km) from the coast, where it has special rights to explore and exploit resources.

100. Which of the following river valleys is rich in coal reserves in India?

(A) Damodar River Valley

(B) Son River Valley

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Both the Damodar River Valley and the Mahanadi River Valley are rich in coal reserves. The Damodar Valley is renowned for its extensive coal deposits, while the Mahanadi Valley also contains significant coal resources, particularly in the Chhattisgarh region.

So, the correct answer is: (D) More than one of the above

More Details

Damodar River Valley:

Location: Eastern India, primarily in Jharkhand and West Bengal.
Coal Reserves: Rich in high-quality coking coal.
Major Mines: Jharia, Bokaro, and Dhanbad.

Son River Valley:

Location: Central India, in parts of Madhya Pradesh and Bihar.

Mahanadi River Valley:

Location: Central India, in Odisha and parts of Chhattisgarh.
Coal Reserves: Significant deposits, especially in the Talcher and Korba regions.
Major Mines: Talcher and Ib Valley.

101. Which of the following statements in true about sugar industry in India?

(A) It is a weight-losing industry.

(B) Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producer in the country.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is: (D) More than one of the above

Here’s why:

It is a weight-losing industry: True. The sugar industry is considered a weight-losing industry because the final product (sugar) is much lighter than the raw material (sugarcane) from which it is produced.
Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producer in the country: True. Maharashtra is one of the leading sugar producers in India, with a significant number of sugar mills.
Uttar Pradesh is the second largest producer of sugar: True. Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of sugar in India, with Maharashtra being the second largest.

Thus, statements (A), (B), and (C) are all correct.

102. Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as

(A) Blossom showers

(B) Norwesters

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The pre-monsoon showers that occur towards the end of summer in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka are locally known as: (C) Mango showers

These showers typically occur in late April to early June and are crucial for the flowering of mangoes. They help in the ripening of the mangoes and also mark the beginning of the monsoon season.

Blossom Showers:

Occur in Kerala and coastal Karnataka.
Happening in late April to early June.
Aid mango flowering and signify the approaching monsoon.

Norwesters:

Common in West Bengal and northeastern India.
Occur during pre-monsoon season.
Bring intense thunderstorms and cooling relief from heat.

103. The atmosphere is mainly heated by the

(A) short-wave solar radiation

(B) reflected solar radiation

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The atmosphere is mainly heated by: (C) long-wave terrestrial radiation
While short-wave solar radiation heats the Earth’s surface, it is the long-wave terrestrial radiation, re-emitted from the Earth’s surface, that primarily warms the atmosphere.
This process involves the Earth’s surface absorbing short-wave radiation and then emitting long-wave radiation, which heats the atmosphere through radiation and convection.

104. Which of the following States of India borders with the maximum number of districts in Bihar?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Jharkhand

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh each share their boundaries with 8 districts of Bihar, making them the states that border the maximum number of districts in Bihar.
Uttar Pradesh: West Champaran, Gopalganj, Siwan, Saran, Buxar, Bhojpur, Rohtas, and Kaimur
Jharkhand: Katihar, Bhagalpur, Banka, Jamui, Nawada, Gaya, Aurangabad and Rohtas
West Bengal shares its boundary with 3 districts (Kishanganj, Prunea and Katihar) of Bihar.
Nepal shares its boundary with 7 districts (West Champaran, East Champaran, Sitamarhi, Madhubani, Supaul, Araria and Kishanganj) of Bihar.
Therefore, the correct answer to the original question is indeed: (D) More than one of the above

105. Which of the following is the last railway station of Bihar in the train route from Bhagalpur towards Mirza Cheuki?

(A) Pirpainti Railway Station

(B) Ammapali Railway Station

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is: (B) Ammapali Railway Station
On the train route from Bhagalpur towards Mirza Cheuki, Ammapali Railway Station is the last railway station in Bihar before the train crosses into the neighboring state.
Ammapali Halt is situated in Bihar’s Bhagalpur district on the Sahibganj loop line, while Mirza Cheuki is located in Jharkhand’s Sahebganj district.

106. With reference to the mineral production in Bihar, consider the following statements:

1. Rohtas has the highest deposit of pyrites.

2. Limestone is found in Kaimur (Bhabhua), Munger (Monghyr) and Rohtas districts.

3. Gold deposits are found in Jamui district.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

Rohtas has the highest deposit of pyrites. Bihar holds 95% of the nation’s pyrite resources, with significant deposits in Rohtas, particularly in the Vidhyan belt and Sone valley.
Limestone is found in Kaimur (Bhabhua), Munger (Monghyr), and Rohtas districts. These districts are known for their limestone deposits, crucial for various industries. Calcium carbonate is the main component of Limestone.
Gold deposits are found in the Jamui district. A report by the Indian Bureau of Mines states that the Jamui district possesses around 222.88 million tonnes of gold reserves, including 37.6 tonnes of ore rich in minerals.

Therefore, all the statements are correct but none of the option is correct. Hence the answer option ‘E’ is correct.

107. Phalgu a sacred river flowing in Bihar is formed by the confluence of which of the following rivers?

(A) Lilajan and Son rivers

(B) Son and Mohana rivers

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

- - The Phalgu River, a sacred river in Bihar, is formed by the confluence of the Mohana and Lilajan (Niranjan) rivers. The Lilajan River originates in the Rajgir hills, and the Mohana River flows from the Kaimur range.
  - Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Mohana and Lilajan rivers.

More about Phalgu River

- Flow and Width: After merging, the river flows north through Gaya, expanding to over 820 meters in width and covering a span of 135 kilometers.
- Sacred Significance: The Phalgu is revered in Hinduism and Buddhism and is associated with the Vishnupad Mandir temple on its banks.
- Historical Reference: The river is mentioned in the Ramayana, where Sita is said to have cursed it, leading to its transformation into sand dunes.
- Mouth: The river eventually feeds into the Punpun River.

108. In Bihar, tea gardens were established for the first time in which of the following places?

(A) Thakurganj

(B) Bahadurganj

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Tea gardens were first established in Thakurganj, Bihar, where the tea industry has since thrived. Located in northeastern Bihar, Thakurganj’s climate and soil resemble those of Assam, making it ideal for tea cultivation.
The Doke Tea Estate, founded in 1998 by Rajiv Lochan, is notable for popularizing Bihar’s tea. Named after the river running through it, Doke is a 35-acre estate that initially supplied leaves to local tea factories.
Thakurganj, a town in the Kishanganj district, is divided into 12 wards and serves as a key area for Bihar’s burgeoning tea industry.

Thus, the correct answer is: (A) Thakurganj.

109. Choose the correct order of the following districts of Bihar as per the ascending decadal population growth (2001-2011).

(A) Siwan < Kishanganj < Madhepura

(B) Madhepura < Kishanganj < Siwan

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

To determine the correct order of districts in Bihar based on ascending decadal population growth from 2001 to 2011, let’s look at the population growth rates for each district:

Siwan: Siwan had a population growth rate of around 19.4% during the 2001-2011 decade.
Kishanganj: Kishanganj experienced a significant population growth rate of about 29.4%.
Madhepura: Madhepura had a population growth rate of around 22.3%.

Arranging these districts in ascending order of their population growth rates:

Siwan (19.4%)
Madhepura (22.3%)
Kishanganj (29.4%)

Therefore, the correct order is: (A) Siwan < Madhepura < Kishanganj.

110. Which food industry dominates among the agro-based industries in Bihar?

(A) Cereal-based industry

(B) Pulses industry

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Agro-Based Industries: Include food products, beverages and tobacco products, textiles, leather products, wood, furniture, and paper industries.
Major Agricultural Products: Bihar’s key agricultural products are cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and cash crops.
Cereals: The productivity of cereals in Bihar is lower than the national average while it is higher in the case of pulses and maize and more or less at par with the national average in the case of oilseeds.

So, the correct answer is: (A) Cereal-based industry.

111. Large number of thin strips of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be

(A) a zebra of black stripes

(B) a horse of black stripes

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

When a convex lens with a focal length of 20 cm has thin strips of black paint on its surface, it alters how light passes through the lens. Here’s a breakdown of the effects:

Black Strips on Lens: The black strips on the lens will block some of the light, creating a pattern of darkness and light in the resulting image.
Image Formation: Due to the obstruction caused by the black strips, the image formed will not be uniformly bright and clear. Instead, it will have a pattern that reflects the obstruction.

Given the options:

A zebra of black stripes: This is incorrect because the black strips on the lens will not create a zebra-like pattern but rather affect the overall brightness and clarity of the image.
A horse of black stripes: This is also incorrect because the black strips on the lens will not replicate the stripes on the horse but will affect the image’s overall appearance.
A horse of less brightness: This is correct because the black strips will reduce the amount of light passing through the lens, resulting in an image that is less bright.

Therefore, the best answer is: (C) A horse of less brightness.

112. Shrillness of sound is determined by

(A) amplitude of sound

(B) wavelength of sound

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Shrillness, or the perceived pitch of a sound, is primarily determined by the frequency of the sound wave. The frequency of a sound wave is inversely related to the wavelength and directly affects how high or low the pitch of the sound is perceived.

Amplitude of sound: This affects the loudness of the sound, not the pitch. Larger amplitudes make the sound louder, not shriller.
Wavelength of sound: Wavelength is inversely related to frequency. So while wavelength affects the pitch, it’s more directly connected to frequency.
Velocity of sound: This affects how fast sound travels through a medium but does not affect the pitch directly. The velocity of sound depends on the medium through which it travels (air, water, etc.) and is not a factor in determining the shrillness.

Thus, the most accurate way to describe what determines shrillness is frequency, which is related to wavelength but not explicitly listed as an option here. Therefore, the closest correct answer based on the options provided is: (B) Wavelength of sound
This choice is linked to frequency, which determines pitch or shrillness.

113. Which of the following photoelectric devices. is most suitable for digital applications?

(A) Photovoltaic cell

(B) Photoemitter

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Photovoltaic Cell: Converts light directly into electricity. It’s a crucial component in many digital and electronic systems, including satellite communications, which heavily rely on this technology for power.

(C) Photodiode: Also converts light into an electrical signal but is generally used for detecting light rather than generating power.

Both devices utilize the photoelectric effect, but if the focus is on the broader impact in digital technology, particularly in generating power for digital systems, Photovoltaic Cells (A) stand out due to their wide application in powering electronic systems, including satellites and other critical digital infrastructure.
Therefore, considering the primary role in digital applications where light is converted into electricity, (A) Photovoltaic Cell is a correct answer, particularly emphasizing its broad use in powering digital technology.

Photoemitter: This device emits light when an electric current passes through it and is not involved in producing electricity from light.

114. Ball bearings are used to convert static friction into

(A) drag

(B) sliding friction

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Ball bearings are designed to reduce friction between moving parts by replacing sliding friction with rolling friction. Here’s how it works:

Drag: This is a term usually associated with resistance in fluids (like air or water) and is not directly related to the type of friction involved with ball bearings.
Sliding Friction: This occurs when two surfaces slide against each other. It typically has a higher frictional force compared to rolling friction.
Rolling Friction: This occurs when an object rolls over a surface, which is usually less than sliding friction. Ball bearings help achieve this type of friction by allowing the surfaces to roll over each other rather than slide.
- Given that ball bearings are specifically used to reduce friction by facilitating rolling rather than sliding, the correct answer is:(C) Rolling friction

Static Friction: This is the friction that prevents motion between two stationary surfaces.

115. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to

(A) exert large force on the ball

(B) increase the force exerted by the ball on hands

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

When a goalkeeper pulls his hands backwards after catching a ball, he is effectively increasing the time over which the ball’s momentum is brought to zero. This technique is related to the principle of impulse and momentum.

Here’s how it works:

Impulse: The impulse experienced by an object is equal to the change in momentum. Impulse is also the product of the force applied and the time over which it is applied.
Momentum: Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. To stop the ball, its momentum needs to be reduced to zero.
Time and Force: By pulling his hands backward, the goalkeeper extends the time during which the ball’s momentum is reduced. According to the impulse-momentum theorem, if the time over which the change in momentum occurs is increased, the average force exerted on the ball (and the hands) is reduced.

Thus, pulling the hands backward:

Reduces the force exerted on the goalkeeper’s hands because it increases the time over which the momentum changes (decreases the rate of change of momentum).
Does not necessarily increase the force exerted by the ball on the hands or directly increase the rate of change of momentum.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Decrease the rate of change of momentum

116. Which among the following is a positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element?

(A) Beta ray

(B) Alpha ray

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element is: (B) Alpha ray

Brief overview of each option:

Beta ray: Beta rays are electrons or positrons. Beta particles can be negatively charged (beta-minus) or positively charged (beta-plus, also known as positrons). However, in the context of traditional radioactive decay, beta rays are usually electrons (negative charge).
Alpha ray: Alpha rays consist of alpha particles, which are helium nuclei (composed of 2 protons and 2 neutrons). Alpha particles are positively charged due to the presence of the protons.

So, the correct answer is: (B) Alpha ray

Cathode ray: Cathode rays are streams of electrons emitted from the cathode of a vacuum tube. They are negatively charged.

117. Centripetal force is responsible to

(A) keep the body moving along the circular path

(B) fly the object along a straight line

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Centripetal force is the force that acts on an object moving in a circular path to keep it moving along that path. It is directed towards the center of the circle or curved path.

Here’s a look at each option:

Keep the body moving along the circular path: This is correct. Centripetal force is necessary to maintain the circular motion of an object by continually pulling it towards the center of its circular path.
Fly the object along a straight line: This is incorrect. Centripetal force does not cause an object to move in a straight line; rather, it keeps the object moving in a curved or circular path.
Independent motion of the object in space: This is also incorrect. Centripetal force is not related to the independent motion of an object in space; it specifically pertains to motion in a curved path.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Keep the body moving along the circular path

118. Which of the following energy changes involves frictional force?

(A) Potential energy to sound energy

(B) Chemical energy to heat energy

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Frictional forces are responsible for converting mechanical energy into heat energy due to the resistance encountered between surfaces in contact.

Here’s a breakdown of the options:

Potential energy to sound energy: While potential energy can be converted into various forms of energy, sound energy itself is not directly associated with friction. However, friction could generate sound, but it’s not the primary energy conversion here.
Chemical energy to heat energy: Chemical reactions often release heat energy, but this transformation typically does not involve friction directly.
Kinetic energy to heat energy: This is directly related to friction. When kinetic energy (energy of motion) is dissipated through friction, it is converted into heat energy. For instance, when you rub your hands together, the kinetic energy from the motion is converted into heat due to friction.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Kinetic energy to heat energy

119. A bus is moving along a straight path and takes a sharp turn to the right side suddenly. The passengers sitting in the bus will

(A) fall in the forward direction

(B) bent towards left side

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

When a bus takes a sharp turn to the right, passengers inside the bus experience inertia. Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion. As the bus turns right, the passengers will continue moving in their original direction (which is tangential to the curve), so they will seem to lean or be pushed towards the left side of the bus relative to the direction of the turn.

Here’s how each option applies:

Fall in the forward direction: This is not correct for a right turn. Passengers will not fall forward; instead, they experience a force pushing them to the left side of the bus.
Bent towards left side: This is correct. Due to inertia, passengers will appear to lean towards the left side of the bus as the bus turns right.
Bent towards right side: This is incorrect. Passengers do not bend towards the direction of the turn but rather away from it due to inertia.

Thus, the correct answer is: (B) Bent towards left side

120. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he/she is adjusting

(A) amplitude of sound

(B) intensity of sound

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Before a sitarist plays in an orchestra, adjusting the tension and plucking the strings are crucial for tuning the instrument.

This adjustment involves

Amplitude of sound: The amplitude of sound relates to the loudness or volume, which is not directly affected by adjusting string tension.
Intensity of sound: While tension can influence the intensity of sound, the primary goal in tuning is not directly to adjust intensity but rather to match frequencies.
Frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments: This is the correct answer. By adjusting the tension of the strings, the sitarist changes the frequency of the strings to match the pitch of other musical instruments, ensuring harmonious sound during the performance.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments

121. A form of matter has no fixed shape but it has a fixed volume. An example of this form of matter is

(A) krypton

(B) kerosene

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The description of a form of matter that has no fixed shape but has a fixed volume refers to a liquid. Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of their container.

Here’s how the options fit into this description:

Krypton: Krypton is a noble gas and, in its gaseous state, does not have a fixed shape or volume; it expands to fill the container.
Kerosene: Kerosene is a liquid. It has a fixed volume but will take the shape of its container, fitting the description provided.
Carbon steel: Carbon steel is a solid. Solids have both a fixed shape and a fixed volume.

Thus, the correct answer is: (B) Kerosene

122. Some metal oxides react with acid as well as base to produce salt and water. They are known as amphoteric oxides. The examples of amphoteric oxides are

(A) Al₂O₃ and ZnO

(B) Al₂O₃ and CuO

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Amphoteric oxides are those that react with both acids and bases to form salts and water. Here’s a breakdown of the given options

Al₂O₃ and ZnO: Both aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) and zinc oxide (ZnO) are amphoteric oxides. They can react with acids to form salts and water, and they can also react with bases to form complex salts.
Al₂O₃ and CuO: Aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) is an amphoteric oxide, but copper(II) oxide (CuO) is a basic oxide, not amphoteric. It reacts primarily with acids.
CuO and ZnO: Copper (II) oxide (CuO) is a basic oxide and does not react with bases to form salts. Zinc oxide (ZnO), however, is amphoteric.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Al₂O₃ and ZnO

123. Which gas contributes to global warming through its greenhouse effect?

(A) Nitrous oxide

(B) Methane

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Global warming is primarily driven by greenhouse gases, which trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere and contribute to the greenhouse effect. The gases listed in the options are all known to contribute to global warming-

Nitrous oxide: This is a greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming. It has a high global warming potential (GWP) and contributes to the greenhouse effect.
Methane: Methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a significant impact on global warming. It has a much higher GWP than carbon dioxide over a short time period.
Carbon dioxide: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is one of the most significant greenhouse gases, primarily responsible for global warming due to its large volume and long-term impact.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) More than one of the above

124. Acids react with metal carbonates to liberate ______ gas.

(A) CO2

(B) CO

(C)H₂

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

When acids react with metal carbonates, they produce carbon dioxide gas. The general reaction between an acid and a metal carbonate is:

Acid + Metal Carbonate → Salt + Water + Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)

For example:

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃) to produce sodium chloride (NaCl), water (H₂O), and carbon dioxide (CO₂):

2HCl + Na₂CO₃ →2NaCl +H₂O+CO₂

So, the correct answer is:(A) CO₂

125. Which acid is described as HOOCCOOH?

(A) Oxalic acid

(B) Acetic acid

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The chemical formula HOOCCOOH corresponds to oxalic acid. Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid with two carboxyl groups (-COOH) and its systematic name is ethanedioic acid.

Here’s a brief overview of the acids listed

(A) Oxalic acid: The correct formula for oxalic acid is H₂C₂O₄, which can be represented as HOOCCOOH in its condensed form. This acid is known for its presence in various plants and its use as a cleaning agent.

(B) Acetic acid: Acetic acid has the formula CH₃COOH. It is a carboxylic acid but does not match the formula HOOCCOOH.

(C) Carbonic acid: Carbonic acid has the formula H₂CO₃. It does not match HOOCCOOH.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Oxalic acid

126. You have been provided with three test tubes One of them contains distiled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. Which of them will turn red litmus to blue?

(A) Acid

(B) Base

(D) More than of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

In the context of litmus paper tests:

(A) Acid: Acidic solutions turn blue litmus paper red, not the other way around.

(B) Base: Basic (alkaline) solutions turn red litmus paper blue. So, the basic solution will turn red litmus paper to blue.

(C) Distilled water: Distilled water is neutral and does not affect litmus paper, so it does not turn red litmus paper blue.

Therefore, the correct answer is:(B) Base

127. The odour of acetic acid resembles that of

(A) tomato

(B) kerosene

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The odor of acetic acid is most commonly associated with vinegar. Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar (typically around 4-8% acetic acid by volume), and this is where its distinctive smell is most notably recognized.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Vinegar

Here’s how the other options relate to the odor of acetic acid:

(A) Tomato: The smell of tomatoes is quite different from acetic acid. Tomatoes have a complex aroma that is not similar to the sharp, tangy smell of acetic acid.

(B) Kerosene: Kerosene has a very distinct and strong odor that is different from the acidic and vinegar-like smell of acetic acid.

128. Why does dry HCL gas we change the colour of dry litmus paper?

(A) Bluc litmus becomes dry in the presence of dry HCL gas.

(B) No H₃O+ ions are present. Litmus changes colour only in the presence of H3O+ ions

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Dry HCl gas does not change the color of dry litmus paper because there are no H₃O⁺ ions present in the gas phase. Let’s clarify the points:

HCl in Gas Form: Dry HCl gas does not ionize in the absence of water. It requires moisture to dissociate into H⁺ and Cl⁻ ions, which then form H₃O⁺ ions in solution. These ions are necessary for the color change in litmus paper.
Litmus Paper: Litmus paper changes color in the presence of H₃O⁺ ions (protons) which are produced when an acid dissolves in water. Since dry HCl gas does not provide these ions until it comes into contact with moisture, it does not affect dry litmus paper.

Summary of Key Points:

Dry HCl Gas: No H₃O⁺ ions are present, so it does not change the color of dry litmus paper.
Litmus Paper: Changes color only in the presence of H₃O⁺ ions, which are not available with dry HCl gas.
Dissociation: HCl needs to be in aqueous solution to dissociate into H⁺ and Cl⁻ ions that interact with water to form H₃O⁺ ions.

Therefore, the correct explanation for why dry HCl gas does not change the color of dry litmus paper is indeed:(B) No H₃O⁺ ions are present. Litmus changes color only in the presence of H₃O⁺ ions.

129. Detect the odd one.

(A) Setting of cement

(B) Burning of coal

(D) More than of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

Setting of cement is indeed a chemical process involving hydration, resulting in a permanent and irreversible change.
Burning of coal is a combustion reaction, also a chemical process leading to irreversible changes such as the formation of carbon dioxide.
Ripening of fruit is a chemical change, involving irreversible processes such as the transformation of pigments and other biochemical changes.

Therefore, the correct option is: (E) None of the above

130. Which of the following statements about diamond and graphite is true?

(A) They have same crystal structure.

(B) They have same degree of hardness.

(C)They have same electrical conductivity.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon, but they have very different properties due to their distinct crystal structures.

Here’s an analysis of each statement:

They have same crystal structure.

This is incorrect. Diamond has a tetrahedral crystal structure where each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a three-dimensional network. Graphite, on the other hand, has a planar hexagonal lattice structure where each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in a flat, two-dimensional sheet, with weak van der Waals forces between the layers.

They have same degree of hardness.

This is incorrect. Diamond is the hardest natural material known, rated 10 on the Mohs scale of hardness, while graphite is quite soft and can be easily scratched. The difference in hardness is due to the different types of bonding and crystal structures.

They have same electrical conductivity.

This is incorrect. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity because the delocalized electrons in its layered structure can move freely. Diamond, however, is an electrical insulator because its electrons are tightly bound in covalent bonds and do not conduct electricity.

Thus, the correct answer is (E) None of the above.

131. The stomata open or close due to change in the

(A) protein composition of cells

(B) amount of water in cells

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Stomata are small openings on the surfaces of leaves and stems that regulate gas exchange and water loss in plants. The opening and closing of stomata are primarily controlled by changes in the turgor pressure of the guard cells that surround each stoma.

Here’s how each option relates to the function of stomata

Protein composition of cells

While the protein composition of guard cells can influence their function, it is not the primary factor regulating stomatal movement.

Amount of water in cell

This is correct. The opening and closing of stomata are primarily influenced by the amount of water in the guard cells. When guard cells take up water, they become turgid, causing the stomata to open. Conversely, when water is lost from the guard cells, they become flaccid, leading the stomata to close.

Position of nucleus in cells

The position of the nucleus is not a direct factor in the regulation of stomatal opening and closing.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) amount of water in cells.

132. Chlorophyll absorbs__________ the sunlight. wavelengths of

(A) green and blue

(B) green and red

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Chlorophyll is a pigment crucial for photosynthesis in plants. It absorbs light to drive the process of converting light energy into chemical energy. Chlorophyll primarily absorbs certain wavelengths of sunlight and reflects others, which gives plants their green color.

Here’s a breakdown of the light absorption by chlorophyll:

Green and blue

Chlorophyll absorbs blue light efficiently but not green light. Instead, it reflects green light, which is why plants appear green.

Green and red

Chlorophyll does not absorb green light; it reflects it. However, chlorophyll absorbs red light quite effectively.

Red and blue

This is correct. Chlorophyll absorbs red light (around 665-680 nm) and blue light (around 430-450 nm) most efficiently. This absorption is essential for the photosynthetic process.

The most accurate answer is (C) red and blue.

133. Which of the following is not a correct match?

(A) Thick, hard stem with branching near base: Tree

(B) Weak stem which cannot stand upright: Creeper

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

(A) Thick, hard stem with branching near base: Tree

This statement is incorrect because the description matches a shrub, not a tree. Trees typically have a trunk with branches starting higher up.

(B) Weak stem which cannot stand upright: Creeper

This is correct. Creepers have weak stems that spread along the ground or need support.

(C) Petiole Attaches leaf to stem

This is correct. The petiole is the stalk that attaches the leaf blade to the plant stem.

Correct descriptions:

(A) Thick, hard stem with branching near base: Tree is indeed incorrect.

(B) Weak stem which cannot stand upright: Creeper and (C) Petiole Attaches leaf to stem are correct.

So, the correct answer is (A).

134. Water reaches great heights in trees because of suction pull caused by

(A) absorption

(B) transpiration

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Water reaches great heights in trees primarily due to a process known as transpiration, which creates a suction pull that helps draw water from the roots up through the plant.

Here’s a breakdown of each option:

(A) Absorption

Absorption is the process by which roots take up water from the soil. While important for providing water to the tree, absorption alone does not account for the ascent of water to great heights in trees.

(B) Transpiration

Transpiration is the process where water evaporates from the leaf surfaces into the atmosphere. This loss of water creates a negative pressure (suction) in the leaf veins, which pulls water upward from the roots through the xylem vessels. This process is crucial for the movement of water to great heights in trees.

(C) Evaporation

Evaporation refers to the change of water from a liquid to a gas, but in the context of water movement in trees, it is specifically the evaporation from leaf surfaces (transpiration) that creates the suction pull.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) transpiration.

135. Which among the following is a character chloroplast which makes them qualified self-replication?

(A) Presence of DNA only

(B) Absence of RNA

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Chloroplasts have the ability to self-replicate, a characteristic shared with mitochondria, due to their unique features. The key aspects that enable this self-replication are related to their genetic material and cellular machinery.

Let’s evaluate each option:

(A) Presence of DNA only

While chloroplasts do contain their own DNA, this alone does not fully account for their ability to self-replicate. They also require other components for replication.

(B) Absence of RNA

This is incorrect. Chloroplasts contain RNA in addition to DNA. RNA plays a crucial role in the synthesis of proteins required for their replication and function.

(C) Presence of both DNA and RNA

This is correct. Chloroplasts contain both DNA and RNA. The DNA in chloroplasts encodes for some of the proteins required for their function and replication, while RNA is involved in protein synthesis. The presence of both is crucial for their ability to replicate independently of the cell’s nuclear DNA.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Presence of both DNA and RNA.

136. The parts of the skeleton that are not as hard as bones and which can be bent are called as

(A) carpals

(B) cartilage

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The parts of the skeleton that are not as hard as bones and which can be bent are known as cartilage.

Here’s a breakdown of the options:

Carpals

Carpals are the bones of the wrist. They are not flexible or bendable; they are hard, bony structures.

Cartilage

Cartilage is a flexible, semi-rigid connective tissue that provides support while allowing some degree of flexibility. It is found in various parts of the body, such as the nose, ears, and between bones in joints (e.g., the knee). Cartilage can bend and is not as hard as bone.

Vertebrae

Vertebrae are the individual bones that make up the spine. While they provide structural support and protect the spinal cord, they are hard and not particularly flexible on their own. However, the vertebral column has cartilage between the vertebrae, which allows some flexibility and movement.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) cartilage.

137. In lichen, a chlorophyll-containing partner, live together.

(A) fungus and a bacterium

(B) alga and a virus

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In a lichen, the chlorophyll-containing partner is (C) alga and a fungus.

Lichens are symbiotic associations between two different organisms:

Alga (or cyanobacterium in some cases): This partner contains chlorophyll and is responsible for photosynthesis, producing food for both organisms.
Fungus: This partner provides structure, protection, and absorbs nutrients and water from the environment for the lichen.

Here’s a breakdown of why the other options are not correct:

(A) Fungus and a bacterium

While lichens involve a fungus, the other partner is typically an alga or a cyanobacterium, not a bacterium.

(B) Alga and a virus

Viruses are not involved in lichens. The symbiotic relationship is between an alga (or cyanobacterium) and a fungus.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) alga and a fungus.

138. Female Anopheles can be distinguished from female Culex because it sits

(A) at an angle with substratum

(B) parallel to the surface of substratum

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Female Anopheles mosquitoes can be distinguished from female Culex mosquitoes based on their resting posture.

The key difference in their resting positions is:

(A) At an angle with substratum

This is correct. Female Anopheles mosquitoes typically rest at an angle to the surface (substratum) when they are at rest. They often position themselves with their bodies angled upwards and their heads closer to the surface.

(B) Parallel to the surface of substratum

This describes the resting posture of female Culex mosquitoes. Female Culex mosquitoes generally rest parallel to the surface of the substratum, with their bodies almost flat.

(C) At right angle to the surface of substratum

This is not characteristic of either Anopheles or Culex mosquitoes. Neither typically rests at a right angle to the surface.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) at an angle with substratum.

139. The most important cell type associated with the immunity of the body is

(A) platelets

(B) lymphocytes

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The most important cell type associated with the immunity of the body is (B) lymphocytes.

Here’s a breakdown of the options:

(A) Platelets

Platelets are involved in blood clotting and wound repair but are not primarily responsible for immunity.

(B) Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell crucial to the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and responding to pathogens. There are two main types of lymphocytes involved in immunity: B cells, which produce antibodies, and T cells, which can kill infected cells and help coordinate the immune response.

(C) RBCs (Red Blood Cells)

Red blood cells are primarily responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and returning carbon dioxide to the lungs. They do not play a direct role in immunity.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) lymphocytes.

140. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about muscles in human body?

(A) Muscles work in pairs.

(B) Muscles become shorter, stiffer and thicker when contracted.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Let’s evaluate each statement about muscles in the human body:

(A) Muscles work in pairs.

This is correct. Muscles often work in antagonistic pairs. For example, when one muscle contracts, its opposing muscle relaxes to allow movement. This is known as the principle of antagonistic muscle pairs.

(B) Muscles become shorter, stiffer and thicker when contracted.

This is correct. When a muscle contracts, it shortens and increases in thickness (becomes more rigid), leading to a stiffer and more compact appearance.

(C) Muscles can only push the bone.

This is incorrect. Muscles cannot push; they can only pull. They work by contracting (pulling) on the bones, which produces movement. For instance, when the biceps muscle contracts, it pulls the forearm towards the upper arm.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Muscles can only push the bone.

141. In a code language, if FASTER is written as 2229212319 and MONK is written as 15161412, then how will GUIDE be written in the same language?

(A) 192019423

(B) 212219523

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To decode the pattern for GUIDE, follow the encoding rules observed in the given examples:

FASTER → 2229212319 and MONK → 15161412. We see:
For FASTER: The pattern uses positional values where:
Odd positions (1, 3, 5) use reverse positional values + 1.
Even positions (2, 4, 6) use the same positional values + 1.
Apply this pattern to GUIDE:
G (7th position, odd): Reverse position (20) + 1 = 21.
U (21st position, even): Position (21) + 1 = 22.
I (9th position, odd): Reverse position (18) + 1 = 19.
D (4th position, even): Position (4) + 1 = 5.
E (5th position, odd): Reverse position (22) + 1 = 23.

Combining these, GUIDE is encoded as 212219523. Therefore, the correct option is (B) 212219523.

142. A rectangle has an area 30 cm²and perimeter 26 cm. Its sides (in cm) are

(A) 10, 3

(B) 5,6

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Given the area 𝑎×𝑏=30cm² and the perimeter 2(𝑎+𝑏) =26cm, we need to find the sides 𝑎 and b.

Formulate equations:

Area: 𝑎×𝑏=30 Equation 1)
Perimeter:2(𝑎+𝑏) =26 →a +b=13 (Equation 2)

Substitute b rom Equation 2 into Equation 1: b= 13-a a×(13-a) = 30 13a – a2= 30a²-13a+30=0

Solve the quadratic equation: a²-13a+13+0 (a-10) (a-3) =0 a=10 or a =10

Find corresponding values of b:

If a=10, then 𝑏=13−10=3
If a=3, then 𝑏=13−3=10

Thus, the sides of the rectangle are 10 cm and 3 cm, confirming that the correct answer is (A) 10, 3.

143. A shopkeeper offers 10% discount on an item with marked price 400. If he charges 10% GST, then the final price of the item is

(A) 380

(B) 400

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To determine the final price of the item after applying a discount and GST, follow these steps:

Calculate the Discounted Price:

The marked price of the item is 400.
Discount=10% of 400 Discount= 10/100 ×400 =40
Therefore, the price after discount is: Discounted Price= 400-40=360

Calculate the GST:

GST is 10% of the discounted price: GST=10/100×360=36

Calculate the Final Price:

The final price is the discounted price plus the GST: Final Price=360+36=396

Thus, the final price of the item is 396. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) 396.

144. Arrange the following words in logical and meaningful order:

1. Vice President

2. President

3. Speaker

4. Prime Minister

5. Members of the Parliament

(A) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To arrange these terms in a logical and meaningful order in the context of a parliamentary system:

Vice President: In many countries, the Vice President is a separate office from the Prime Minister and may be next in line after the President.
President: The President is the head of state, often separate from the Prime Minister, and is typically the highest office in the government.
Speaker: The Speaker is elected from among the Members of Parliament and presides over the parliamentary sessions.
Prime Minister: The Prime Minister is typically the head of government and is appointed from among the Members of Parliament, usually the leader of the majority party.
Members of the Parliament: These are the individuals who are elected to represent constituencies and make up the legislative body.

Arranging these in the context of a parliamentary system:

Members of the Parliament
Speaker
Prime Minister
Vice President
President

Thus, the correct order is: (C) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4

145. Reshma donates one-fourth of her property to a charity organization and divides the remaining property equally among her three children. The part of property each child gets is

(A) half

(B) one-fourth

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Let the total property of Reshma = X

She donates one-fourth of her property (i.e. X/4) to a charity organization,

So, the remaining property = X – X/4 = 3X/4

Now she divides the remaining property equally among her three children.

So, the part of property each child gets is = (3X/4) / 3= X/4

Hence, each child gets one-fourth of the total property.

146. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Every square is a rectangle

(B) Every rhombus is a parallelogram.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

(A) Every square is a rectangle: True. A square has all the properties of a rectangle (opposite sides equal and angles right angles), but it also has all sides equal.

(B) Every rhombus is a parallelogram: True. A rhombus is a special type of parallelogram where all sides are equal.

Since all the statements are true, the correct answer is:(E) None of the above

147. In a family of some persons, B says that R is the daughter of my sister A, who is the only daughter of T. X is the child of T and Z, who is the grandmother of H. K is the mother of M, who is the only sister of H. X is unmarried. If S is the spouse of A, how is K related to S?

(A) Sister-in-law

(B) Wife of brother-in-law

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

K is the mother of M and H. That means K is female hence option C is ruled out.
Z is the grandmother of H. So, K is either daughter / daughter-in-law of T&Z. But A is the only daughter of T(&Z) so K is their daughter -in-law.
Since X is unmarried, so husband of K is another son of T&Z. Let’s name it Y who is brother of A. Since S is spouse (husband) of A (female) who is sister of Y. So, Y is brother-in law of S. Since K is wife of Y hence answer is wife of brother-in- law.

Hence answer ‘B’ is correct.

148. How many words, no matter if they are meaningless, can be formed by the letters of the word ‘DIARY?

(A) 5

(B) 10

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

To determine how many words (including meaningless ones) can be formed from the letters of the word “DIARY,” we need to calculate the total number of permutations of its letters.

The word “DIARY” has 5 unique letters: D, I, A, R, Y.
The formula for the number of permutations of n distinct objects is n! (n factorial).
For the word “DIARY”: n=5 5! = 5× 4 × 3 × 2 × 1=120
Therefore, 120 distinct permutations (or arrangements) of the letters can be formed from “DIARY.”

The correct answer is:(E) None of the above.

149. Select the missing number from the given alternatives:

44	49	37
52	?	41
58	35	53

(A) 56

(B) 77

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The given table follows the rule:

In the row: (First Number – Third Number) x 7 = Second Number

⇒ 44 – 37 = 7 × 7 = 49

⇒ 58 – 53 = 5 × 7 = 35

Similarly,

⇒ 52 – 41 = 11 × 7 = 77

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

150. Find the missing number in the given series following the same pattern:

15, 20, 32, 62, 118, 248, ?

(A) 322

(B) 368

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To find the missing number in the series 15,20,32,62,118,248,?, observe the pattern in the differences:

First differences: 20-15=5, 32-20=12, 62-32=30, 118-62=56,248-118=130.
Differences of these differences:12-5=7, 30-12=18, 56-30=26, 130-56=74.

The next difference appears to increase by 74-26=48.Adding this to the last difference 130, we get 130+48=178.

Thus, adding 178 to 248 gives 426.The closest match from the options is 428, indicating a slight variation but fitting best.

The missing number is (C) 428.

67th BPSC PYQ Prelims Solved GS & CSAT Questions

1. Who established trade relations with Roman empire?

(A) Cheras

(B) Western Shakas

(D) Kushanas

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Cheras engaged in extensive trade with the Roman Empire and other regions, contributing to the cultural and economic exchanges in the Indian Ocean. They were known for their maritime prowess, while the Western Shakas controlled parts of western India and had extensive trade connections.

So, the answer is: (A) Cheras

More about Cheras:

The Cheras were an influential ancient South Indian dynasty ruling central and northern Kerala and the Kongu region of Tamil Nadu. Their capital was Vanji, with key ports like Musiri and Tondi under their control.
The Cheras’ emblem was a bow and arrow, reflecting their martial prowess. Benefiting from maritime trade, they exported spices, timber, pearls, and gems via the Indian Ocean. Known as “Keralaputas” (sons of Kerala), notable rulers include Uthiyan Cheralathan, Nedunjeral Adan (who defeated seven kings), and Senguttuvan, also called Red Chera.
Recent scholarship suggests the Cheras had two branches, detailed in the Patitrupathu and Pugalur inscriptions.

Western Shakas: Ruled western India (Gujarat and Maharashtra) from the 1st century BCE to the 4th century CE. They were contemporary with the Satavahanas in the Deccan and the Kushanas in the north.

Vakatakas: Reigned in central India (Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh) from the 3rd to 5th centuries CE. They were notable for their contributions to art and culture, including the Ajanta Caves.

Kushanas: Controlled northern India and parts of Central Asia from the 1st to 3rd centuries CE. They played a key role in Silk Road trade and spread Buddhism.

2. The Muslim ruler whose empire was regarded as a part of Dar-ul-Islam was

(A) Razia

(B) Iltutmish

(D) Balban

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Iltutmish, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1211 to 1236, is the Muslim ruler whose empire was regarded as part of Dar-ul-Islam, meaning the “abode of Islam” where Islamic law was applied and the Islamic faith was practiced. The concept of Dar-ul-Islam refers to territories where Islamic law prevails, and Iltutmish’s rule was seen as a part of this domain.

So, the answer is: (B) Iltutmish

Other facts about Iltutmish

Iltutmish is credited with the establishment of a centralized administrative system, including the introduction of the Iqtadari system to manage revenues and military.
Iltutmish successfully defended his realm from the Mongol invasions and strengthened the Sultanate’s military capabilities.
He built the Qutb Minar and other architectural projects, enhancing the cultural and religious landscape of Delhi.

(A) Razia Sultana: The only female ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, Razia (1236-1240) ruled briefly and faced significant opposition. Her reign did not significantly impact the recognition of the Sultanate as Dar-ul-Islam.

(C) Nasir-ud-Din: Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud (1246-1266) ruled after Iltutmish but was more a figurehead under the influence of the powerful noble, Balban.

(D) Balban: Reigning from 1266 to 1287, Balban strengthened the Sultanate and maintained Islamic rule.

3. Who among the following opposed the power of the Khalifa?

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq

(D) Iltutmish

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Alauddin Khalji, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1296 to 1316, is known for his strong stance against the authority of the Khalifa. He sought to assert his independence and control over his domain without interference from the Islamic Caliphate, emphasizing the autonomy of the Delhi Sultanate. His policies and actions were aimed at consolidating his power and diminishing the influence of the Khalifa in the region.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Alauddin Khalji.

Other facts about Alauddin Khalji

Reigned from 1296 to 1316, Alauddin Khalji expanded the Delhi Sultanate through aggressive military campaigns, including the conquest of Gujarat and the Deccan.
He implemented market reforms to control prices and ensure stable food supplies, targeting both traders and officials.
Alauddin introduced a system of espionage to maintain surveillance over his officials and suppress dissent.
His reign was marked by a strong centralization of power, reducing the influence of the nobility and enforcing strict administrative control.

4. Tughril Khan raised a standard of revolt during whose reign?

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Feroz Tughluq

(D) Balban

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Tughril Khan raised a standard of revolt during the reign of Sultan Balban, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1266 to 1287. Balban had to deal with this rebellion as part of his efforts to consolidate and maintain control over his empire.

So, the answer is: (D) Balban

Other facts about Balban

Reigned from 1266 to 1287, strengthening the Delhi Sultanate.
Implemented the “Blood and Iron” policy to enforce law and order.
Reformed the military and established a spy network.
Promoted Islamic orthodoxy and strict religious adherence.
Successfully suppressed rebellions and secured the empire’s borders.

5. Who was the first Mughal ruler who fought against the British?

(A) Aurangzeb

(B) Shah Jahan

(D) Jahangir

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Aurangzeb was the first Mughal emperor to have direct confrontations with the British East India Company. He clashed with the British over trade and territorial disputes, leading to several conflicts. One of the most notable examples is the “Child’s War” (1686-1690), which was a series of battles between the Mughal Empire and the British.

So, the answer is: (A) Aurangzeb

Other facts about Aurangzeb

Reigned from 1658 to 1707, Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal Emperor, known for his expansion of the empire to its greatest territorial extent.
His rule is marked by a strong orthodox Islamic policy, including the reimposition of the jizya tax on non-Muslims and the destruction of several Hindu temples.
Aurangzeb’s administration focused on centralization and military campaigns, notably against the Marathas and the Deccan Sultanates.
His reign saw the decline of Mughal economic power due to constant military expenditures and administrative challenges.
He faced significant resistance from various regional powers, contributing to the eventual fragmentation of the Mughal Empire after his death.

6. Which of the following were the social reforms introduced by William Bentinck?

1. Abolition of Sati

2. Abolition of slavery

3. Removal of disabilities due to change of religion

4. Suppression of the organized bands of Thugs

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

William Bentinck, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835, is known for the following social reforms:

Abolition of Sati: Bentinck played a key role in the official abolition of the practice of Sati (suttee) in 1829.
Removal of disabilities due to change of religion: He supported the removal of legal disabilities imposed on people who converted to Christianity.
Suppression of the organized bands of Thugs: He implemented measures to suppress and control the Thugs, a group notorious for their criminal activities.

So, correct answer is (A) 1, 3 and 4 only.

While Bentinck supported reforms, the abolition of slavery was not a primary focus of his administration in India, and the significant legislative steps toward abolition came later.

7. Sind was conquered and annexed by

(A) Sleeman

(B) Napier

(D) Wellington

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Sindh was conquered and annexed by Sir Charles Napier, a British general, in 1843. Napier led the military campaign that resulted in the annexation of the region into British India.
The British East India Company, along with the British Army and Royal Navy, led the campaign to conquer Sindh from the Talpurs. The British gave Napier full civil and military powers in September 1842 after complaints about the amirs’ attitude towards the British during the First Anglo-Afghan War.
The British victory at the Battle of Miani on February 17, 1843 led to the annexation of most of Sindh, except for the state of Khairpur.

So, correct answer is: (B) Napier

8. In which year, first Census was introduced in India?

(A) 1901

(B) 1911

(D) 1872

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The first census in India was conducted in 1871-72 under the administration of Lord Mayo. This was the initial attempt to systematically collect demographic data, and regular decennial censuses began from 1881.

So, correct answer is: (D) 1872

Other facts about Lord Mayo

Governor-General of India (1869-1872), Lord Mayo is noted for his administrative reforms and efforts to improve governance in British India.
Mayo promoted economic development through initiatives like the construction of railways and the improvement of infrastructure.
He worked on reorganizing the civil services, aiming to enhance efficiency and reduce corruption.
His tenure ended tragically when he was assassinated in 1872 by a convict while visiting the Andaman Islands, where he was inspecting penal settlements.

9. On which date, Sukhdev, Bhagat Singh and Rajguru were hanged?

(A) 23rd March, 1931

(B) 7th September, 1931

(D) 12th November, 1930

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Sukhdev, Bhagat Singh, and Rajguru were hanged on March 23, 1931, in Lahore Central Jail. Their execution was a significant event in the Indian independence movement and was widely condemned by freedom fighters and the general public.

So, correct answer is: (A) 23rd March, 1931

Other facts about Sukhdev, Bhagat Singh, and Rajguru

Sukhdev Thapar, Bhagat Singh, and Rajguru were prominent revolutionary figures in the Indian independence movement, known for their role in the struggle against British colonial rule.
They were involved in the luminous Jalianwala Bagh incident and the revolutionary activities of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
Bhagat Singh became famous for his dramatic protest against British colonialism and his efforts to inspire youth with his radical ideologies.
They were arrested for their involvement in the murder of John Saunders, a British police officer, and other revolutionary activities.

10. Who was the third Satyagrahi of Individual Satyagraha launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1940?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Rajendra Prasad

(D) Vinoba Bhave

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Brahma Dutt was the third Satyagrahi selected by Mahatma Gandhi to participate in the Individual Satyagraha movement in 1940. The movement was launched as a form of civil disobedience against British rule, and it was designed to challenge the British government’s policies without resorting to mass protests.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (C) Brahma Dutt

11. Who launched secret radio during the Quit India Movement?

(A) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan

(B) Sucheta Kripalani

(D) Usha Mehta

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Usha Mehta was a prominent freedom fighter who launched and operated a secret radio during the Quit India Movement of 1942.
This radio station, known as the “Azad Hind Radio,” played a crucial role in disseminating information and rallying support for the independence movement while evading British surveillance.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) Usha Mehta

12. Who was the Physician of Magadh ruler Bimbisara?

(A) Vijayasena

(B) Jeevaka

(D) Shilabhadra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Jeevaka was the renowned physician who served the Magadh ruler Bimbisara.
He was a celebrated figure in ancient Indian medicine and is known for his contributions to the field of Ayurveda and his role in the court of Bimbisara, as well as later, his service to Bimbisara’s son, Ajatashatru.

So, the answer is: (B) Jeevaka

13. Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar?

(A) Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji

(B) Ibrahim

(D) Malik Husamuddin

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji is considered the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar.
He was a Turkish general who led the conquest of Bihar in the early 13th century, establishing Turkish dominance in the region.
His rule marked the beginning of significant Turkish influence in Bihar, setting the stage for the later establishment of the Delhi Sultanate.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (A) Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji

14. Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar?

(A) Dr. Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Brij Kishor Prasad

(D) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Satyendra Prasanna Sinha was appointed as the Governor of Bihar and Odisha on December 29, 1920. He was the first Indian to hold the position of Governor of these provinces.
He was also the first Indian to become a member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.

So, the answer is: (D) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha

15. Who were the leaders of Santhal Revolt?

(A) Sidhu and Kanhu

(B) Gaurakshni Bhagat and Keshav Chandra Roy

(D) Jara Bhagat and Balaram Bhagat

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu were the prominent leaders of the Santhal Revolt, also known as the Santhal Rebellion, which took place between 1855 and 1856.

So, the answer is: (A) Sidhu and Kanhu

Other facts

The Santhals, a major tribal group from Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, faced exploitation due to British land policies, including the Permanent Settlement of 1793, which disrupted their traditional agriculture and made them landless.
On June 30, 1855, leaders Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, along with their sisters Phulo and Jhano, led a significant uprising against British rule and local landlords.
The revolt was brutally crushed, with around 15,000 Santhals killed and villages destroyed, highlighting the stark power imbalance.
The rebellion influenced the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act of 1876, which provided some protection against exploitation, and contributed to the formation of Jharkhand in 2000.

16. In which year the Chauri Revolt of Bihar took place?

(A) 1842

(B) 1798

(D) 1832

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Chauri Revolt, also known as the Chuar Rebellion, was a series of peasant movements that took place in Bihar and surrounding regions between 1771 and 1809.

The peak of this rebellion occurred in 1798-99 under the leadership of Durjan Singh, Lal Singh, and Mohan Singh.

So, the answer is: (B) 1798

Other facts

The Chuar Rebellion occurred from 1798 to 1799 in the Bankura district of southwestern West Bengal.
Led by the Chuars (local tribesmen) and Paiks (hereditary policemen), the rebellion was driven by grievances against British land revenue policies.
The rebellion was sparked by the British policy of resuming farmlands and dismissing the Paiks from their roles.
The rebels attacked markets, kachahris, and villages, leading to widespread unrest and destruction.
The British eventually subdued the rebellion, leading to reforms in local police and administrative practices to restore order.

17. In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar?

(A) 1936

(B) 1956

(D) 1912

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Orissa (now Odisha) was separated from Bihar and became a separate province on April 1, 1936. This was part of the administrative reorganization under British rule to create a distinct province for the Oriya-speaking people.

So, the answer is: (A) 1936

18. Where was the first Buddhist Council convened?

(A) Rajagriha

(B) Amaravati

(D) Pataliputra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The six Buddhist Councils

First Buddhist Council (483 BCE): Convened at the Sattapanni Caves in Rajagriha, this council was under the patronage of King Ajatashatru and presided over by Monk Mahakasyapa. Its agenda was to preserve the Buddha’s teachings (Sutta) and monastic discipline (Vinaya). The Suttas and Vinaya were recited by Ananda and Upali, respectively, and the Abhidhamma Pitaka was also recited.

So, the answer is: (A) Rajagriha

Second Buddhist Council (383 BCE): Held at Vaishali under the patronage of King Kalasoka and presided over by Sabakami. This council aimed to resolve disputes among different sects and rejected the Mahasangikas’ texts as non-canonical, marking a significant moment in Buddhist history.
Third Buddhist Council (250 BCE): Convened at Pataliputra during Emperor Ashoka’s reign, presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa. The council focused on analyzing and purifying different Buddhist schools. Ashoka used the council’s outcomes to promote Buddhism internationally.
Fourth Buddhist Council (72 CE): Held in Kashmir under Emperor Kanishka’s patronage and presided over by Vasumitra and Asvaghosha. It aimed to reconcile conflicts among Buddhist sects, leading to the divergence of Hinayana and Mahayana Buddhism.
Fifth Buddhist Council (1871 CE): Convened in Mandalay, Myanmar, under King Mindon’s patronage and presided over by Jagarabhivamsa, Narindabhidhaja, and Sumangalasami. The council focused on reciting and scrutinizing Buddhist texts in detail. Its recognition is mostly limited to Myanmar.
Sixth Buddhist Council (1954 CE): Held at Kaba Aye in Yangon, Myanmar, under Prime Minister U Nu’s patronage and presided over by Mahasi Sayadaw and Bhadanta Vicittasarabhivamsa. The council aimed to preserve the authentic Dhamma and Vinaya, with a special cave built to echo the original council’s setting.

19. Which Gupta ruler assumed the throne after killing his elder brother?

(A) Samudragupta

(B) Chandragupta II

(D) Shri Gupta

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Chandragupta II is known to have assumed the throne after killing his elder brother, Ramagupta. According to historical accounts, Ramagupta’s weakness in the face of a foreign threat led to his downfall. Chandragupta, dissatisfied with his brother’s actions, took decisive steps to secure the throne for himself.

So, the answer is: (B) Chandragupta II

About Chandragupta II

Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, ruled from 375 to 415 CE, marking the peak of the Gupta Empire’s Golden Age.
He extended the Gupta Empire from the Indus River to Bengal and from the Himalayan foothills to the Narmada River through conquests and alliances.
His marriage to Naga princess Kubera Manga and his daughter Prabhavati’s marriage to Vakataka prince Rudrasena II helped consolidate power.
Defeated the Western Kshatrapas, Vahikas, and conquered the Vanga country.
The Mehrauli Iron Pillar honors his conquests and dedication to Vishnu.
His court featured eminent figures like Kalidasa and Varahamihira.
Effective governance with notable officials such as Vira-sena and Amrakardava.

20. Who laid the foundation of Vardhana dynasty?

(A) Rajyavardhana

(B) Adityavardhana

(D) Pushyabhuti

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Pushyabhuti is recognized as the founder of the Vardhana dynasty, which ruled parts of northern India during the 6th and 7th centuries CE.

So, the correct answer is (D) Pushyabhuti.

Overview of the Pushyabhuti Dynasty:

Time of Reign: The dynasty held power during the 6th and 7th centuries in northern India.
Harsha Vardhana: Harsha, the last ruler of the dynasty, played a pivotal role in its success and territorial expansion.
Extent of the Empire: The empire extended from Kamarupa in the east to the Narmada River in the south, covering a wide geographical area.
Capital: Initially, the dynasty’s capital was located in Sthanveshvara (present-day Thanesar in Haryana)
Capital shift: Harsha later relocated the capital to Kanyakubja, which is known today as Kannauj in Uttar Pradesh. He ruled from there until 647 CE.

21. The Sargasso Sea is a part of the

(A) Arctic Ocean

(B) North Atlantic Ocean

(D) Indian Ocean

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Sargasso Sea is a unique region within the North Atlantic Ocean. It’s defined by its boundaries of ocean currents rather than land. This area is known for its calm waters and abundance of Sargassum seaweed, a type of brown algae.
Its boundaries are defined by the Gulf Stream to the west, the North Atlantic Current to the north, the Canary Current to the east, and the North Atlantic Equatorial Current to the south.

So, the answer is: (B) North Atlantic Ocean

22. What is the boundary line between India and China called?

(A) Radcliffe Line

(B) Indira Point

(D) McMahon Line

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The boundary line between India and China is called the McMahon Line. This line was established by the 1914 Simla Accord and marks the boundary between the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.

So, the answer is: (D) McMahon Line

Radcliffe Line: This boundary was drawn in 1947 to demarcate the border between India and Pakistan at the time of the partition of British India. Named after Sir Cyril Radcliffe, the line divided the Indian subcontinent into two separate nations, India and Pakistan.
Indira Point: Located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India. It is named after former Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and is a notable geographic marker rather than a political boundary.
Durand Line: Established in 1893, the Durand Line is the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. Named after Sir Mortimer Durand, it was drawn to demarcate the spheres of influence between British India and Afghanistan.

23. Rajasthan receives very little rain because

(A) it is too hot

(B) there is no water available and thus the winds remain dry

(D) the monsoon fails to reach this area

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Rajasthan receives very little rain primarily because (C) the winds do not come across any barriers to cause the necessary uplift to cool the air.
Rajasthan’s geographical location in the northwest of India, far from the coast and surrounded by the Thar Desert, means that moist winds from the Indian Ocean lose much of their moisture before reaching the region.
Additionally, the absence of significant mountain barriers to lift and cool these winds further reduces rainfall. While factors like temperature and monsoon patterns play a role, the key reason is the lack of orographic uplift.

24. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Project Tiger was launched in 1973.

2. The theme for National Biodiversity in 2022 is ‘Building a shared future for all life.

3. The Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) 1, 2 and 3.

In India, the Project Tiger was launched in 1973: This statement is correct. Project Tiger was indeed launched in 1973 to protect and conserve tigers in India.
The theme for National Biodiversity in 2022 is ‘Building a shared future for all life: This statement is correct. The theme for the International Day for Biological Diversity in 2022 was “Building a shared future for all life,” which aligns with global biodiversity efforts.
The Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme: This statement is correct. Project Tiger is specifically aimed at conserving tiger populations and their habitats in India.

25. For which cultivation Karewas are famous?

(A) Saffron

(B) Mango

(D) Banana

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Karewas are famous for the cultivation of (A) Saffron.
Karewas are alluvial deposits found in the Kashmir Valley, and they are particularly well-suited for growing saffron, which thrives in this unique soil type and climatic condition.

26. Which State in India is the leading producer of thorium?

(A) Bihar

(B) Jharkhand

(D) Kerala

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The leading producer of thorium in India is (D) Kerala.

Kerala has significant reserves of thorium, particularly in the form of monazite sand along its coastal areas. This makes it a key region for thorium production in the country.

About thorium

Thorium is a naturally occurring element found in various minerals, notably monazite sand, and is more abundant in the Earth’s crust than uranium.
It is used as a potential fuel for nuclear reactors, offering advantages like greater safety and reduced nuclear waste compared to uranium.
Liquid fluoride thorium reactors (LFTRs) are a promising technology, using thorium to produce energy more efficiently.
Thorium itself is less radioactive compared to uranium and plutonium, reducing some radiation hazards associated with nuclear fuel.
India holds about 25% of the world’s thorium reserves, totaling 400,000 tonnes, while it possesses only 2% of global uranium reserves.
In 1954, Homi J. Bhabha proposed a three-stage nuclear power program to leverage India’s thorium reserves, addressing the country’s need for energy independence and sustainability.

27. At which of the following places the newsprint paper industry is located?

(A) Durgapur

(B) Nepanagar

(D) Satana

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The newsprint paper industry is located in (B) Nepanagar.
Nepanagar, located in the Burhanpur district of Madhya Pradesh, is renowned for its newsprint paper industry.
The Nepa Mills Limited, which began operations in 1956, is notable as Asia’s first paper mill. It was inaugurated by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, and the facility has played a significant role in the development of the paper industry in India.

28. Where was first coal mine in India mined?

(A) Raniganj

(B) Dhanbad

(D) Jharia

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The first coal mine in India was mined at (A) Raniganj.
The Raniganj coalfield, located in West Bengal, is known for being the site of the earliest coal mining operations in India.
Commercial coal mining in India was started in 1774 by Messrs Sumner and Heatley of the East India Company in the Raniganj coalfield on the west bank of the Damodar River.

29. According to the Census of India, 2011 which Scheduled Tribe is largest in India?

(A) Kol

(B) Bhil

(D) Santhal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

According to the Census of India 2011, the largest Scheduled Tribe in India is the (B) Bhil.
The Bhil are indeed one of India’s largest tribal groups, spread across several states including Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

About Bhil

The name “Bhil” is derived from “billu,” which means bow, reflecting their traditional skill as archers.
Historically known for their expertise in guerrilla warfare, today many Bhils work as farmers and agricultural laborers. They are also skilled sculptors.
Bhil women traditionally wear saris, while men dress in long frocks and pyjamas. Women adorn themselves with heavy silver and brass jewelry, including rosaries of beads and silver coins.
The Bhil are known for their deep understanding of local geography, which has been crucial in their traditional practices and survival skills.

30. The total geographical area of Bihar State is

(A) 94316 sq. km

(B) 94163 sq. km

(D) 94200 sq. km

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) 94,163 sq. km.

Bihar has a total geographical area of 94,163 square kilometers. This makes it the 12th largest state in India by geographical area.

Key points about Bihar

Bihar is situated between latitudes 24°20’10″N and 27°31’15″N and longitudes 83°19’50″E and 88°17’40″E. It is a landlocked state in the subtropical region of the temperate zone.
The state is positioned between the humid West Bengal to the east and the less humid Uttar Pradesh to the west. It is bordered by Jharkhand to the south and Nepal to the north.
The Ganges River divides Bihar into North Bihar and South Bihar. The state’s terrain is generally around 173 feet above sea level.
Bihar shares its borders with Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Nepal. The border with Nepal is approximately 601 km long.
The seven districts that share a border with Nepal, from west to east, are West Champaran, East Champaran, Sitamarhi, Madhubani, Supaul, Araria, and Kishanganj.

31. Which river is known as Sorrow of Bihar?

(A) Ganga

(B) Kosi

(D) Ghaghra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The river known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” is the (B) Kosi.

The Kosi River is infamous for its frequent and devastating floods, which have caused significant damage and hardship in Bihar over the years. The river’s tendency to change its course and the resulting floods have earned it this unfortunate nickname.

About Kosi River

Transboundary Flow: The Kosi River flows through China, Nepal, and India. It is a significant tributary of the Ganges River.
Origin: The Kosi is formed by the confluence of three streams: Sun Kosi, Arun Kosi, and Tamur Kosi. These streams originate in the Himalayan regions of Nepal and Tibet.
Course: The Kosi River flows southward from its origins, breaking through the Siwalik Hills at the Chatra Gorge, and then traverses the northern plains of Bihar, eventually joining the Ganges River south of Purnea. It covers a distance of about 450 miles (724 km) and drains an area of 74,500 sq.km, of which 11,070 sq.km are in India.
Geographical Boundaries: The Kosi River valley is bordered by the Yarlung Zangbo River to the north, the Mahananda River to the east, the Gandaki River to the west, and the Ganges River to the south.
Flooding and Course Changes: The Kosi is notorious for its tendency to shift course, often moving westward. Over the past 200 years, it has shifted approximately 112 km westward, causing extensive damage to agricultural lands and contributing to its reputation as the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to frequent flooding and human suffering.
Tributaries: The Kosi has seven major tributaries: Sun Koshi, Tama Koshi (or Tamba Koshi), Dudh Koshi, Indravati, Likhu, Arun, and Tamore (or Tamar).

32. In which district of Bihar, Telhar Kund Waterfall is located?

(A) Nawada

(B) Kaimur

(D) Sasaram

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Telhar Kund Waterfall is located in the (B) Kaimur district of Bihar.

About Telhar Kund Waterfall

Location: The Telhar Waterfall is situated on the Rohtas Plateau, near the Durgavati River in the Kaimur district. It is approximately 32 km from Bhabua and around 47 km from Mohania.
Attractions: Near the waterfall is the Maa Mundeshwari Temple, located about 28 km away. This temple is one of the oldest and most significant religious sites in the region.
Karamchat Dam: The waterfall is close to the Karamchat Dam, which adds to the scenic beauty of the area. The dam enhances the appeal of the site for visitors.
Telhar Kund Lake: At the base of the waterfall is the Telhar Kund Lake, a popular spot for tourists to enjoy a refreshing dip and appreciate the natural surroundings.
Scenic and Recreational Value: Surrounded by picturesque views, the waterfall is a great spot for picnics and offers a scenic experience, making it a popular destination for both locals and tourists.

33. Which is the Asia’s largest and freshwater oxbow lake in Bihar?

(A) Kanwar Lake

(B) Anupam Lake

(D) Ghogha Lake

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Kanwar Lake, also known as Kabartal Jheel, is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake and is located in Bihar, India. It’s a vital wetland ecosystem that supports a diverse range of flora and fauna, including numerous migratory bird species.

So, the answer is: (A) Kanwar Lake

About Kanwar Lake

Formation and Location: Kanwar Lake is a residual oxbow lake formed due to the meandering of the Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganges. It is situated in the Indo-Gangetic plains of northern Bihar.
Ecological Importance: The lake serves as a crucial stopover for migratory waterbirds along the Central Asian Flyway, with around 58 migratory species using it for resting and refueling.
Biodiversity: Kanwar Lake is rich in fish biodiversity, with over 50 species documented. It also supports five critically endangered species, including three vultures (red-headed vulture, white-rumped vulture, and Indian vulture) and two waterbirds (sociable lapwing and Baer’s pochard).
Threats: The lake faces several threats from water management activities such as drainage, water abstraction, damming, and canalization, which impact its ecological balance.
Conservation Status: Due to its ecological significance and the presence of endangered species, Kanwar Lake is a site of conservation concern and efforts are ongoing to address the threats to its environment.

34. Which district of Bihar has the largest gold reserve?

(A) Jamui

(B) Banka

(D) Munger

(E)None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The district in Bihar with the largest gold reserve is (A) Jamui.
Jamui has been noted for its significant gold reserves, which have attracted attention for exploration and potential mining activities.
Jamui District: According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), Jamui district in Bihar has substantial gold reserves. The survey estimates around 88 million tonnes of gold ore, including 37.6 tonnes of mineral-rich ore, with significant findings in areas like Karmatia, Jhajha, and Sono.
Gold Reserves in India: As of 2015, the total reserves/resources of gold ore (primary) in India are estimated at 501.83 million tonnes.

Distribution of Gold Reserves:

Bihar: Holds the largest share with 44% of the country’s gold ore reserves.
Rajasthan: Comes next with 25% of the reserves.
Karnataka: Accounts for 21%.
West Bengal: Has 3%.
Andhra Pradesh: Also holds 3%.
Jharkhand: Contains 2%.
Other States: The remaining 2% of gold reserves are distributed among Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu.

35. Which district of Bihar is known as ‘silk city’?

(A) Bhojpur

(B) Bhagalpur

(D) Katihar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The district of Bihar known as the ‘Silk City’ is (B) Bhagalpur.
Bhagalpur is renowned for its traditional silk weaving industry, particularly known for the production of high-quality silk fabric.

About Silk City

Reputation: Bhagalpur, Bihar, is celebrated as the “Silk City” due to its centuries-old tradition of silk production.
Historical Legacy: The city’s silk industry has flourished for nearly two centuries, significantly impacting the global silk trade. Its location along the Ganges River and favorable climate have been pivotal to its success.
Economic Role: Bhagalpur’s silk industry is crucial for local livelihoods, with about 50% of its silk production being exported internationally to markets in Western Asia, Europe, the U.S., and Japan.
Prosperity: The city’s wealth is closely tied to its silk industry, producing high-quality fabrics and attracting traders and customers worldwide.
Global Significance: Bhagalpur combines traditional techniques with modern designs, making it a key player in the global silk market and a hub for cultural exchange.

36. What is the female literacy rate of Bihar as per the Census 2011 of India?

(A) 71-25%

(B) 50-50%

(D) 61-80%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

According to the Census 2011, the female literacy rate in Bihar was 51.50%.
This indicates that a significant portion of women in Bihar were literate, but the overall literacy rate was still lower compared to many other states in India.

Key points based on the Census of India 2011 data:

Bihar’s Literacy Rates:

Overall literacy rate: 61.80%
Male literacy rate: 71.20%
Female literacy rate: 51.50%

National Average:

Overall literacy rate: 74.04%
Male literacy rate: 82.14%
Female literacy rate: 65.46%

Top 5 Indian States by Literacy Rate:

Kerala: 94.0%
Lakshadweep: 91.8%
Mizoram: 91.3%
Goa: 88.7%
Karnataka: 75.4%

37. Which is the chief heavenly body of solar system?

(A) Jupiter

(B) Saturn

(D) Earth

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The chief heavenly body of the solar system is the (C) Sun. It is the central star around which all other celestial bodies, including planets, moons, and asteroids, orbit.

The Sun is the chief heavenly body of the solar system because it’s the center of the solar system, and it’s responsible for regulating the solar system and keeping all other celestial bodies in orbit around it:

Location: The Sun is at the center of the solar system.
Composition: The Sun is a hot, glowing ball of hydrogen and helium.
Mass: The Sun contains 99.86% of the solar system’s known mass.
Gravity: The Sun’s gravity keeps all the other celestial bodies in orbit around it.
Energy: Without the Sun’s energy, life on Earth would not exist.
The solar system also includes eight planets, satellites, asteroids, and meteoroids.

38. Which elements are abundant in the formation of interior layer of the earth?

(A) Silica and magnesium

(B) Basalt and silica

(D) Silica and aluminium

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The interior layers of the Earth are primarily composed of: (C) Nickel and ferrum (iron)
Iron (ferrum) and nickel are particularly abundant in the Earth’s core, which is the central layer. The mantle, which lies above the core, is rich in silicate minerals that include magnesium and iron, while the crust, the outermost layer, is primarily composed of silica and aluminum.

Key Points

Core:

Composition: Mainly composed of iron and nickel (often referred to as Nife).
Density: Ranges from 9.5 to 14.5 g/cm³, making it the densest layer.
Structure: Consists of two sub-layers:
Inner Core: Solid.
Outer Core: Semi-liquid.

Mantle:

Position: Lies between the core and the crust (lithosphere).
Thickness: Approximately 2900 km.
Composition: Predominantly silicon and magnesium.
Density: Ranges from 3.3 to 5.7 g/cm³.

Crust (Lithosphere):

Position: Outermost layer, varying in thickness from 8 to 40 km.
Composition: Majorly composed of silica (Si) and aluminium (Al), referred to as Sial.
Density: Ranges from 2.70 to 2.95 g/cm³.

39. Who among the following postulated the concept of geographical cycle of erosion?

(A) W. M. Davis

(B) S. W. Wooldridge

(D) A. Holmes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The concept of the geographical cycle of erosion was postulated by (A) W. M. Davis.
This theory, also known as Davis’s Geographical Cycle, describes the process of landscape development and erosion over time, including stages such as youth, maturity, and old age.

40. In which hemisphere, roaring forties, furious fifties and shrieking sixties are blowing?

(A) Southern Hemisphere

(B) Eastern Hemisphere

(D) Northern Hemisphere

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The roaring forties, furious fifties, and shrieking sixties are strong westerly winds found in the (A) Southern Hemisphere.
These winds occur in the latitudinal zones between 40° and 60° south of the equator and are known for their high velocity and frequent storms.

Key points about the Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties:

Location: These are strong westerly winds that occur in the Southern Hemisphere, specifically between the latitudes of 40° and 60° south of the equator.
Intensity: They are known for their high velocity and intensity, with wind speeds ranging from 15 to 25 knots. The extreme weather conditions often lead to waves reaching heights of 10 meters.
Historical Significance: Discovered by Dutch sailor Hendrik Brouwer in the 17th century, these winds were crucial for faster oceanic crossings, significantly shortening the travel time from the Indian Ocean to Java in South Africa.
Geographical Impact: The Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties can create hazardous conditions and are prevalent in the Southern Ocean, near Antarctica.
Notable Cities: Wellington, the capital of New Zealand, is one of the few cities situated between these latitudes, experiencing the effects of these powerful winds.

41. Generally how many sessions are there in the Lok Sabha?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 3

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

In the Lok Sabha, the lower house of India’s Parliament, there are generally 3 sessions each year. These sessions are:

Budget Session: Typically held from February to May, this session deals with the presentation and discussion of the Union Budget.
Monsoon Session: Usually held from July to September, this session is conducted during the monsoon period.
Winter Session: Often held from November to December, this session occurs in the winter.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (D) 3

42. Who was the Chairman of the First Law Commission in Independent India?

(A) Justice V. K. Sundaram

(B) Justice T. V. Venkatarama Aiyar

(D) Justice J. L. Kapur

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Chairman of the First Law Commission in Independent India was Mr. M. C. Setalvad. He was appointed as the Chairman in 1955, and the commission was tasked with the codification and reform of various laws in India.

So, the correct answer is:(C) Mr. M. C. Setalvad

About Law Commission of India

First Law Commission: Established in 1955, chaired by M. C. Setalvad, Attorney-General of India.
Historical Context: Originated with the 1834 Commission under Lord Macaulay, which led to key legal codes like the Penal Code.
Functions:
Reviews and reforms existing laws.
Proposes new legislation and amendments.
Recommends repeal of outdated laws.
Enhances justice delivery and legal efficiency.
Promotes socio-economic and gender equality.
Reports: Submits recommendations to the Central Government, which may accept or reject them.
Term: Each commission is appointed for a three-year term.

43. If ‘One Nation One Election’ is to be realized in India, which Article of the Indian Constitution will require an amendment?

(A) Article 172

(B) Article 356

(D) Article 83

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The implementation of “One Nation One Election” in India would indeed require amendments to multiple provisions of the Constitution, not just a single article. Therefore, the correct answer is:(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

To achieve “One Nation One Election,” the following key articles would need to be amended:

Article 83 – Deals with the duration of the Lok Sabha and its dissolution.
Article 172 – Pertains to the duration and dissolution of state legislative assemblies.
Article 356 – Related to the imposition of President’s Rule, which might be invoked if synchronizing elections causes political instability.

44. Which State does not have Panchayat system?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Nagaland

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

States without a formal Panchayat System:

Mizoram: Operates through Village Councils instead of the traditional Panchayat system due to its unique tribal governance structure.
Meghalaya: Similar to Mizoram, it has traditional village councils in certain areas under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, which limits the establishment of a formal Panchayat system.
Nagaland: Functions with traditional village councils instead of a formal Panchayat system.
Kerala: Has an active and robust Panchayat system.

So, the states that do not have the traditional Panchayat system are:

Mizoram
Meghalaya
Nagaland

If the question is asking about which states do not have the Panchayat system, the correct answer would include Mizoram, Meghalaya, and Nagaland.

Therefore, correct answer is: (E) None of the above/More than one of the above

45. The division of each State into territorial constituencies for the Lok Sabha is done by the Delimitation Commission. This delimitation has been freezed till which year?

(A) 2025

(B) 2026

(D) 2024

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The delimitation of each state into territorial constituencies for the Lok Sabha has been frozen until the year 2026. This freeze was established by the Constitution (84th Amendment) Act, 2001.

So, the correct answer is: (B) 2026

About the Delimitation Commission and its operations:

Establishment: The Delimitation Commission of India is established under the Delimitation Commission Act, designed to adjust the boundaries of constituencies based on census data.
Legal Basis: Article 82 mandates the Parliament to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census, and Article 170 requires States to be divided into territorial constituencies as per this Act.
Historical Context: The first delimitation exercise was conducted in 1950-51. The Delimitation Commission Act was initially enacted in 1952.
Delimitation Commissions: Four delimitation commissions have been set up to date: 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002.
Freezing of Delimitation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the delimitation of constituencies and allocation of Lok Sabha seats till the year 2000 at the 1971 levels. The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 extended this freeze for an additional 25 years, until 2026, to promote population control measures.

46. The Supreme Court is a

(A) protector of human rights

(B) final interpreter of the Constitution

(D) federal court

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The Supreme Court of India serves multiple crucial roles, including:

Protector of Human Rights: The Supreme Court upholds and protects fundamental rights and freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution, ensuring justice and protecting human rights.
Final Interpreter of the Constitution: The Court is the highest authority on interpreting the Constitution, resolving constitutional disputes and clarifying constitutional provisions.
Federal Court: As the apex court in the Indian judicial system, it also acts as the highest federal court, adjudicating disputes between the central government and states or among states.

Therefore, the correct answers are:

(A) Protector of human rights

(B) Final interpreter of the Constitution

(D) Federal court

So, the correct answer is: (E) None of the above/More than one of the above

47. To review the financial position of Panchayats, the State Government constitutes every five years a/an

(A) finance committee

(B) advisory commission

(D) finance commission

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

To review the financial position of Panchayats and ensure proper allocation of resources, the State Government constitutes a: (D) Finance Commission

Key Points

Finance Commission: Established by the Governor of the state, it reviews the financial position of Panchayats and recommends the distribution of funds between the state and local bodies, including Panchayats.
Frequency: This commission is typically constituted every five years to assess the financial requirements and fiscal health of the Panchayats and other local bodies.

So, the correct answer is (D) Finance Commission.

48. What is the objective of community development?

(A) Build human capital

(B) Environment protection

(D) Economic development

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The objective of community development encompasses several key aspects:

(A) Build Human Capital: Community development aims to enhance the skills, knowledge, and capacities of individuals within a community, empowering them to contribute effectively to their society.

(D) Economic Development: It seeks to improve the economic conditions of the community by promoting local economic activities, infrastructure, and employment opportunities.

(C) Harmonious Life: By fostering social cohesion and improving living conditions, community development aims to create a more harmonious and equitable society.

While (B) Environment Protection is important, it is typically a specific focus area within broader community development goals rather than its primary objective.

Thus, the correct answer is (E) None of the above/More than one of the above, as community development addresses multiple objectives including building human capital, promoting economic development, and fostering a harmonious life.

49. Electoral College for the 16th Vice Presidential Election of India for 2022 consists of how many members?

(A) 788

(B) 545

(D) 798

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Electoral College for the Vice Presidential Election of India indeed consists of 788 members. This includes:

250 members from the Rajya Sabha (Council of States)
545 members from the Lok Sabha (House of the People)
2 members from the nominated seats in the Rajya Sabha who are part of the Electoral College for the Vice President

Thus, the correct answer is (A) 788.

50. The Indian President is eligible for re-election for how many times?

(A) Twice

(B) Thrice

(D) Once

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Indian President is eligible for re-election any number of times. There is no limit to the number of terms a person can serve as President, provided they continue to be elected to the office.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) Any number of times.

Constitutional Provisions:

Article 54: Provides for the election of the President.
Article 55: Specifies the manner of election of the President.
Article 56: Defines the term of office of the President.
Article 57: Discusses eligibility for re-election.
Article 58: Lists qualifications for election as President.

Election of the President

Electoral College:

Consists of:

Elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha).
Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (Delhi and Puducherry).

Eligibility to Vote:

Only elected members of the Parliament and state legislative assemblies are eligible to vote. Nominated members and those from the legislative councils (if applicable) are not.

Election Process:

Announcement: Election Commission of India announces the election date and invites nominations.
Eligibility of Candidates:

Candidates must be:

Indian citizens
At least 35 years old
Eligible to be a member of the Lok Sabha
Supported by 50 proposers and 50 seconders from among the electoral college members.
Nominations: The Election Commission scrutinizes and publishes a list of valid candidates.
Voting: Members of the electoral college vote using a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
Counting and Declaration: The candidate with the majority of votes is elected.
Oath and Assumption: The President-elect takes the oath of office and assumes the role of President of India.

51. Bhandari Committee is related to

(A) indirect taxation

(B) agriculture credit

(D) direct taxation

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Bhandari Committee (1994) was formed on “Restructuring of Regional Rural Banks”.

Its Important Recommendations are:

It identified 49 Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) for comprehensive restructuring.
It also recommended greater devolution of decision-making powers to the board of RRBs in mater of business development and Staff.

52. Choose the correct statement related to the National Pension Scheme (NPS).

(A) NPS is a retirement benefit scheme introduced by the Government of India to facilitate a regular income to all the citizens of India.

(B) NPS is regulated by the IRDA.

(D) NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct statement related to the National Pension Scheme (NPS) is: (D) NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.

Key Points:

The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a retirement benefit scheme introduced by the Government of India to provide a structured and regulated pension system for the citizens of India.
The scheme is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
The PFRDA oversees the functioning of NPS, ensuring that the scheme operates efficiently and provides the promised benefits to its subscribers.

53. Which of the following is not included in the priorities of India Budget 2022-23?

(A) Inclusive development

(B) Productivity Enhancement and Investment, Sunrise Opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate Action

(D) PM Gati Shakti

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Disinvestment. While disinvestment may be a part of broader economic strategies, it was not explicitly highlighted as one of the main priorities in the India Budget 2022-23.

The main priorities in the India Budget 2022-23 included:

Inclusive Development: Focus on agricultural growth, rural development, and enhancing the welfare of marginalized communities.
Productivity Enhancement and Investment: Emphasis on sectors like manufacturing, infrastructure, and sunrise opportunities, with a focus on energy transition and climate action.
PM Gati Shakti: A comprehensive approach to infrastructure development aimed at improving logistics and connectivity.
Digital Economy: Investment in digital infrastructure to promote technology-driven growth.
Health and Well-being: Increased spending on healthcare and well-being initiatives, especially in the context of the COVID-19 pandemic.
Education and Skill Development: Enhancements in education and vocational training to equip the workforce for future demands.

These priorities aimed at fostering sustainable growth and development across various sectors of the economy.

54. What was the Tax-GDP ratio in the financial year 2021-22 in India?

(A) 11.7%

(B) 11-5%

(D) 12.5%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Tax-GDP ratio in India for the financial year 2021-22 was approximately 11.7%. So, the correct answer is (A) 11.7%.
The Tax-GDP ratio is a measure that compares a country’s total tax revenue to its Gross Domestic Product (GDP). It is expressed as a percentage and indicates how much of the country’s economic output is collected in taxes.
A higher Tax-GDP ratio can suggest that a country is effectively mobilizing resources for public expenditure, while a lower ratio may indicate potential inefficiencies in tax collection or a smaller tax base. This ratio is often used to assess the fiscal health of a country and its capacity to fund government services and investments.

55. What was India’s share in World Exports by commodity divisions and groups in 2018?

(A) 0.7%

(B) 2.1%

(D) 1.7%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

India’s share in world exports by commodity divisions and groups in 2018 was approximately 1.7%. So, the correct answer is (D) 1.7%.
As of 2023, India’s share in world exports is estimated to be around 2.1%. This indicates a gradual increase in India’s participation in global trade compared to previous years.

56. What was the total production of wheat in India as per the 4th advance estimates in the year 2020-21?

(A) 209-5 million tonnes

(B) 501-5 million tonnes

(D) 109-5 million tonnes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The total production of wheat in India as per the 4th advance estimates for the year 2020-21 was approximately 109.5 million tonnes.

So, the correct answer is (D) 109.5 million tonnes.

Production of Wheat during 2022-23 is estimated at record 110 million tonnes.

57. Choose the correct statement regarding the Vibrant Village Programme.

(A) It is for the Maharashtra State of India

(B) It was started in the year 2017

(D) It is for the development of roads connectivity in Bihar.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct statement regarding the Vibrant Village Programme is (C) It is for the development of border villages on the northern border.
The Vibrant Villages Programme is a Centrally sponsored initiative announced in the Union Budget 2022-23, aiming for the development of villages along India’s northern border.

About the Programme:

Duration: The scheme is planned from 2022-23 to 2025-26.
Geographical Coverage: It targets border areas in Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Ladakh.
Village Coverage: It aims to develop 2,963 villages, with 663 identified for the first phase.
Planning: Vibrant Village Action Plans will be developed by district administrations in collaboration with Gram Panchayats.
Integration: There will be no overlap with the existing Border Area Development Programme.
Objectives:
Economic Development: Identify and enhance local economic drivers using natural, human, and other resources in the border villages.
Growth Centres: Develop growth centres based on a ‘hub and spoke model’, focusing on social entrepreneurship and empowering youth and women through skill development.
Tourism Promotion: Leverage tourism potential by highlighting local culture, traditions, and heritage.
Sustainable Practices: Promote eco-agri businesses based on the ‘one village-one product’ concept through community organizations, cooperatives, and NGOs.
The program aims to improve the quality of life for residents in these border areas, fostering sustainable development and enhancing national security.

58. Choose the incorrect statement as per the Economic Survey of Bihar, 2021-22.

(A) The secondary sector in Bihar had grown at 4.8 per cent.

(B) The tertiary sector in Bihar had grown at the highest rate of 8.5 per cent.

(D) The primary sector in Bihar had grown at 2.3 per cent.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The incorrect statement as per the Economic Survey of Bihar, 2021-22 is (C) The primary sector in Bihar had grown at 2.8 per cent.
This is because option (D) states the primary sector grew at 2.3 per cent, which is more accurate based on the survey data.

Therefore, (C) is the statement that does not align with the findings.

59. Choose the correct order of the following districts of Bihar as per the ascending level of urbanization.

(A) Nalanda Patna < Munger

(B) Patna Munger < Nalanda

(D) Nalanda Munger < Patna

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct order of the districts of Bihar as per the ascending level of urbanization is (D) Nalanda < Munger < Patna.
In this order, Nalanda has the lowest level of urbanization, followed by Munger, and Patna has the highest level of urbanization among the three.

Urbanization in Bihar

The urbanization of the state has increased very rapidly in the last ten years. According to the 2011 census, the level of urbanization in Bihar was just 11.3 percent, which has increased to 15.3 percent at present.
In the year 2011, Bihar had only 3.1 percent of the total urban population of the country. The state government has expressed hope that the level of urbanization in Bihar will be very high in the next decade in view of the urban economy growing at a high rate.
Like the economic disparity among the districts of Bihar, the survey has also pointed out a great disparity in urbanization. Patna district has the highest level of urbanization (44.3 percent), apart from this, only two districts- Munger (28.3 percent) and Nalanda (26.2 percent) have more than 25 percent urbanization.

60. The fiscal deficit is expected to be GSDP of Bihar for the financial year 2022-23, of

(A) 12.1%

(B) 3.47%

(D) 3.18%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The fiscal deficit of Bihar for the financial year 2022-23 is expected to be 3.47% of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).

So, the correct answer is (B) 3.47%.

Fiscal deficit refers to the situation when a government’s total expenditures exceed its total revenues, excluding debt. It is an important indicator of a government’s financial health and its ability to manage its fiscal policy.

Fiscal deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Revenue (excluding borrowings).

61. Choose the option which is not part of the ‘Saat Nischay Part-2 Scheme’ of Bihar.

(A) Strong woman, capable woman

(B) Irrigation water to every field

(D) Yuva Shakti Progress of Bihar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The option that is not part of the ‘Saat Nischay Part-2 Scheme’ of Bihar is (C) Airways to everyone.

The Saat Nischay Part-2 Scheme of Atmanirbhar Bihar focuses on various development goals aimed at improving governance and quality of life in the state. The provisions in the budget for the financial year 2022-23, amounting to Rs 500 crore, are allocated to the following components:

Yuva Shakti – Progress of Bihar: Empowering youth through skill development and employment opportunities.
Strong Woman, Capable Woman: Fostering women’s empowerment and promoting gender equality.
Irrigation Water to Every Field: Ensuring adequate irrigation facilities for agricultural productivity.
Clean Village – Prosperous Village: Enhancing sanitation and living conditions in rural areas.
Clean City – Developed City: Focusing on urban cleanliness and infrastructure development.
Easy Connectivity: Improving transportation and connectivity in both rural and urban areas.
Additional Health Facilities for All: Expanding healthcare services to improve health outcomes.

These initiatives aim to support sustainable development and improve the overall well-being of the residents in Bihar

62. Choose the correct order of the Bihar State districts in descending order of per capita income.

(A) Sheohar Araria > East Champaran > Kishanganj Nawada

(B) East Champaran > Sheohar > Araria > Kishanganj > Nawada

(D) Nawada > Kishanganj > East Champaran > Araria > Sheohar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct order of the Bihar State districts in descending order of per capita income is indeed (D) Nawada > Kishanganj > East Champaran > Araria > Sheohar.
In 2022-23, the per capita Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar is estimated to be Rs 59,637, reflecting a 14% increase over the previous year. In contrast, the per capita Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at the national level is significantly higher, estimated at Rs 1,96,983.

63. Which statement is not true about the poverty estimates based on the 68th round of NSSO?

(A) The poverty line defined at 33.33 per capita per day for urban areas.

(B) The 21.9 per cent population of India was living below the poverty line.

(D) The poverty line defined at 27.20 per capita per day for rural areas.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The 68th round of NSSO and the poverty estimates for 2011-12:

Poverty Lines:

Rural areas: Rs. 27.20 per capita per day (approximately Rs. 816 per capita per month).
Urban areas: Rs. 33.33 per capita per day (approximately Rs. 1,000 per capita per month).

Poverty Estimates:

For a family of five, the monthly poverty line would be around Rs. 4,080 in rural areas and Rs. 5,000 in urban areas.
Percentage of people below the poverty line: 25.7% in rural areas, 13.7% in urban areas, and 21.9% for the country as a whole.

Therefore, the option (E) None of the above/More than one of the above would indeed be the appropriate choice.

64. Which of the following partly defines the micro-enterprise in India?

(A) Annual turnover not more than 15 crore.

(B) Investment in Plant and Machinery not more than 1-5 crore

(D) Investment in Plant and Machinery or equipment not more than 1 crore

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct option that partly defines a micro-enterprise in India is (D) Investment in Plant and Machinery or equipment not more than 1 crore.
According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Development Act, a micro-enterprise is defined as one with investment in plant and machinery not exceeding Rs. 1 crore. The annual turnover criterion is also relevant, but for micro-enterprises, the focus is primarily on the investment limit.

65. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana?

(A) Construction of well

(B) Enhancement of recharging of aquifers

(D) Repair and renovate water bodies

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY) is a comprehensive government initiative aimed at improving irrigation and water management in agriculture.

Correct Components:

Enhancement of Aquifer Recharge: Promoting methods to replenish groundwater sources.
Construction of Rainwater Harvesting Structures: Encouraging practices to capture and utilize rainwater effectively.
Repair and Renovation of Water Bodies: Upgrading and maintaining existing water bodies for better irrigation.

Incorrect Component:

Construction of new wells is not a focus of PMKSY; instead, the scheme aims to improve existing water resources.

So, the answer is: (A) Construction of well

About PMKSY

Launch Year: 2015
Goal: Enhance access to water for farming, expand the cultivable area under assured irrigation, improve water use efficiency, and promote sustainable water conservation practices.
Funding Structure: Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a cost-sharing ratio of 75:25 between the Centre and states. For the northeastern and hilly states, the ratio is 90:10.
Technology Integration: In 2020, the Ministry of Jal Shakti launched a mobile app for geo-tagging project components.

66. Who successfully led the Bardoli Satyagraha?

(A) Motilal Nehru

(B) J. B. Kripalani

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Vallabhbhai Patel.

He successfully led the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928, which was a significant movement against increased revenue assessments by the British government in the Bardoli taluka of Gujarat. This movement was crucial in establishing Patel as a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement.

About Vallabhbhai Patel

Iron Man of India: Vallabhbhai Patel earned this title for his strong leadership and determination in unifying India post-independence.
Bardoli Satyagraha: He successfully led this 1928 movement against increased taxes, which solidified his status as a prominent leader in the freedom struggle.
First Deputy Prime Minister: After India gained independence in 1947, Patel became the first Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Home Affairs, focusing on national integration.
Integration of Princely States: Patel played a crucial role in integrating over 500 princely states into India, using diplomacy and firmness to achieve this goal.
Legacy and Memorials: His legacy is honored through various institutions, including the Statue of Unity, the tallest statue in the world, celebrating his contributions to nation-building.

67. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946 AD?

(A) Ramsay MacDonald

(B) A. V. Alexander

(D) Sir Stafford Cripps

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Ramsay MacDonald.

Ramsay MacDonald was not a member of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946.
The Cabinet Mission, sent by the Atlee government in February 1946, included three key members: Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.
The mission’s primary objective was to negotiate the transfer of power from British rule to Indian leadership and to discuss the constitutional framework for India.
Ultimately, the failure of the Cabinet Mission led to a deeper crisis in Indian politics, setting the stage for the eventual partition of India in 1947.

68. In which year the famous Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place?

(A) 1930 AD

(B) 1931 AD

(D) 1929 AD

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) 1931 AD.

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, emerged from the backdrop of the Salt Satyagraha in 1930, which garnered significant global attention and criticism of British rule in India. Following widespread unrest and the imprisonment of leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Lord Irwin sought to end the civil disobedience movement. After Gandhi’s release from prison in January 1931, he was authorized to negotiate with Irwin.
Key features of the pact included the Indian National Congress agreeing to participate in the Second Round Table Conference, the cessation of civil disobedience, and the withdrawal of repressive ordinances. The government also agreed to release political prisoners, remove the salt tax, and allow peaceful protests.
However, Irwin did not agree to demands for a public inquiry into police actions or commuting the death sentences of Bhagat Singh and others. The pact marked a significant moment in the struggle for Indian independence.

69. In which Session Indian National Congress passed Complete Independence Resolution?

(A) 1924 AD Belgaon

(B) 1929 AD Lahore

(D) 1920 AD Nagpur

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) 1929 AD Lahore.

The Indian National Congress passed the Complete Independence Resolution, also known as the Lahore Resolution, during its session in Lahore in December 1929. This resolution called for complete independence from British rule.

Indian National Congress (INC)

The Congress was founded in 1885 by British civil servant Allan Octavian Hume, who aimed to create a platform for educated Indians to advocate for self-governance and address national issues under British rule.
First President: The first president of the INC was Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, a Bengali barrister, elected at the inaugural session held in Bombay in 1885.

70. Subhas Chandra Bose renamed Nicobar Island as

(A) Shaheed Island

(B) Balidan Island

(D) Swaraj Island

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Subhas Chandra Bose established a Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind) to lead the struggle for independence. This government sought recognition from various countries, including Japan, Germany, Italy, China, and Burma, as part of his efforts to galvanize international support against British rule.
Bose visited the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and renamed them Shaheed (Martyr) Island and Swarajya (Self-rule) Island, respectively, to honor the sacrifices made for India’s freedom.

so, the answer is: (D) Swaraj Island

71. In which state is ‘Chauri Chaura’, where in February 1922 AD a police station was set on fire?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Uttar Pradesh.

Chauri Chaura Incident

Location: Chauri Chaura is a town in Gorakhpur district, Uttar Pradesh.
Date: On February 4, 1922, a violent incident occurred where a large crowd set fire to a police station, killing 22 policemen.

Background:

The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Gandhiji on August 1, 1920, advocating swadeshi and boycotting British goods and institutions.
The movement was supported by the Khilafat Movement, aimed at preserving the Ottoman Caliphate.

Incident Details:

Volunteers gathered and marched to the police station, which resulted in police firing into the crowd, prompting retaliation and arson.

Reactions:

British Response: Aggressive prosecution led to death sentences for many, with 19 ultimately hanged.
Gandhi’s Reaction: Condemned the violence, disbanded volunteer groups, and suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement on February 12, 1922, emphasizing his commitment to non-violence.

72. In which place Khudiram Bose tried to kill Kingsford?

(A) Darbhanga

(B) Muzaffarpur

(D) Patna

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Muzaffarpur. Khudiram Bose attempted to assassinate British magistrate Kingsford in Muzaffarpur in 1908.

Khudiram Bose

Early Life: Born in 1889, Khudiram Bose became a prominent revolutionary figure in India’s freedom struggle.
Age at Execution: He was only 18 years old when he was hanged on August 11, 1908.
Attempt on Kingsford: Bose, along with Prafulla Chandra Chaki, attempted to assassinate the British magistrate Kingsford by throwing a bomb at his wagon at Muzaffarpur.
Incident Details: The bomb blast missed Kingsford, resulting in the deaths of the family of another British officer.
Arrest and Legacy: After being arrested, Khudiram faced trial with unwavering courage, smiling as he was sentenced. He became a symbol of youthful sacrifice in the fight for India’s independence.

73. During which Movement ‘Azad Dasta’ was active in Bihar?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) Champaran Satyagraha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Quit India Movement.

The ‘Azad Dasta’ was active during the Quit India Movement, which began in 1942.

About Azad Dasta

The Azad Dasta, founded by Jayaprakash Narayan during the Quit India Movement of 1942, aimed to paralyze the British government in Bihar.
A separate council was established in Madhubani under Suraj Narayan Singh, with training camps set up for military preparation. The first camp, led by Sardar Nityanand Singh in Nepal, trained 35 recruits to expand the organization.
Members took an oath to fight until India’s freedom, pledging loyalty and military discipline. The Dasta primarily recruited students, teachers, and ex-servicemen, successfully instilling fear in the British authorities through their revolutionary activities across Bihar.

74. Who was allotted the Portfolio of the Labour Department in the Interim Government’s Cabinet of 1946 AD?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Anugraha Narayan Singh

(D) Jagjivan Ram

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Jagjivan Ram.

He was allotted the portfolio of the Labour Department in the Interim Government’s Cabinet of 1946.

The Interim Government of India

The Interim Government of India, formed post-World War II, marked a significant step toward independence. Following the Quit India Movement, the British government released political prisoners and aimed to establish a framework for self-governance. The 1946 Cabinet Mission, dispatched by Clement Attlee, proposed the formation of this government.

Key members included:

Viscount Wavell: Viceroy and Governor-General (until February 1947)
Lord Mountbatten: Viceroy (from February 1947)
Jawaharlal Nehru: Vice President, handling External Affairs
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Home Affairs
Rajendra Prasad: Agriculture and Food
Jagjivan Ram: Labour
Liaquat Ali Khan: Finance

This government lasted until August 15, 1947, when India gained independence, leading to Nehru’s appointment as Prime Minister.

75. In 1942 AD, on the occasion of which festival Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh jail?

(A) Holi

(B) Dussehra

(D) Baisakhi

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh jail in 1942 during Deepawali.

The Quit India Movement

The Quit India Movement, launched on 8th August 1942 by Mahatma Gandhi during a session of the All-India Congress Committee in Mumbai, aimed to end British rule in India. Gandhi’s iconic “Do or Die” call resonated with millions, urging them to take decisive action against colonial authority.
Aruna Asaf Ali, often referred to as the “Grand Old Lady” of the Independence Movement, played a significant role by hoisting the Indian flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan, now known as August Kranti Maidan, symbolizing resistance and unity.
The movement was marked by widespread protests and civil disobedience. The slogan “Quit India” was coined by Yusuf Meherally, a socialist and trade unionist, who also popularized the phrase “Simon Go Back.” This movement mobilized a large section of Indian society against British oppression, setting the stage for further struggles for independence.
The British government’s response to the Quit India Movement was swift and repressive. Major Congress leaders, including Gandhi, Nehru, and Patel, were arrested immediately, leading to a leadership vacuum filled by younger leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia, alongside emerging figures like Aruna Asaf Ali.

76. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in

(A) October 1946 AD

(B) November 1946 AD

(D) September 1946 AD

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in December 1946 AD. So, the correct answer is (C) December 1946 AD.

Key committees of the Constituent Assembly of India along with their chairpersons:

Drafting Committee: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
Steering Committee: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Rules of Procedure Committee: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Provincial Constitution Committee: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:

Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: Acharya Kripalani
Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookerjee
Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee: A. V. Thakkar
North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi

77. Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

(A) Shaukat Ali

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(D) M. A. Jinnah

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Abdul Gaffar Khan

Abdul Gaffar Khan, also known as “Frontier Gandhi,” was a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.
He was known for his nonviolent approach to achieving social and political reform in the North-West Frontier Province (now Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan).

78. Where was Jhansi Ki Rani Laxmibai died?

(A) Kanpur

(B) Gwalior

(D) Lucknow

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Gwalior

Jhansi Ki Rani Laxmibai died in Gwalior during the Indian Rebellion of 1857. She was a key figure in the uprising and fought valiantly against British forces.

Rani Laxmibai

Early Life:

Birth: Rani Laxmibai was born on November 19, 1828, in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
Family: Her father was Moropant Tambe. Her childhood name was ‘Manikarnika,’ affectionately called ‘Manu.’
Marriage and Children: She married Maharaja Gangadhar Rao Newalkar of Jhansi. After the birth of their son, Damodar Rao, who died shortly after, her husband adopted a cousin’s child, also named Damodar Rao, just before the Maharaja’s death.

Role in India’s Struggle for Independence:

Political Context: In 1853, upon the Maharaja’s death, Lord Dalhousie applied the Doctrine of Lapse, annexing Jhansi and ignoring the adopted heir.
Resistance: Rani Laxmibai became a fierce warrior, leading her troops against British forces to defend her kingdom.
Legacy: She died in battle on June 17, 1858, becoming a symbol of resistance. The Indian National Army named its first female unit after her in 1943, honoring her courage and leadership.

79. Who has said about Bengal Partition, “The partition announcement fell like a bomb. shell”?

(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B) Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Surendra Nath Bannerjee

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is Bipin Chandra Pal. He famously remarked that “the partition announcement fell like a bombshell” in response to the partition of Bengal in 1905.

About Bipin Chandra Pal

Bipin Chandra Pal, born on November 7, 1858, in what is now Bangladesh, is celebrated as a key figure in the Indian independence movement and a pioneer of revolutionary thought.
He was part of the influential trio Lal Bal Pal, alongside Lala Lajpat Rai and Bal Gangadhar Tilak, advocating for swaraj (self-rule) and boycotting British goods.
Pal’s early career as a librarian introduced him to prominent social reformers, igniting his passion for nationalism. He actively participated in movements like the Swadeshi and Non-Cooperation Movements and was known for his powerful speeches and writings, which inspired many Indians.
Bipin Chandra Pal was a prolific writer and contributed significantly to Indian nationalism through his literature. His notable books include:

Nationality and Empire
Indian Nationalism
The Basis of Social Reform
Swaraj and the Present Situation
The Soul of India
The New Spirit and Studies in Hinduism

In addition to his books, he also edited several influential journals, including:

The Independent
The Democrat

80. Sardar Udham Singh killed whom?

(A) Curzon Wyllie

(B) Michael O’dwyar

(D) General Dyer

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Sardar Udham Singh killed Michael O’Dwyer. He assassinated O’Dwyer in 1940 as an act of revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, which was ordered during O’Dwyer’s tenure as the Lieutenant Governor of Punjab.

So, the answer is: (B) Michael O’dwyar

Sardar Udham Singh: Key Facts

Birth: Born on December 26, 1899, in Sangrur district, Punjab; original name was Sher Singh.
Military Service: Joined the British Indian Army during WWI; served overseas.
Activism Start: Became a revolutionary after returning to India in 1919, influenced by the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Ghadar Party: Joined the Ghadar Party in 1919; became a prominent campaigner for Indian independence.
Names Used: Adopted various aliases, including Ude Singh and Frank Brazil; last name was Mohammad Singh Azad.
Arrest: Arrested in 1927 for possessing arms; sentenced to five years in prison; befriended Bhagat Singh.
Return to India: Returned to India with revolutionary intent; involved in spreading Ghadar propaganda.
Assassination: Killed Michael O’Dwyer on March 13, 1940; executed on July 31, 1940.
Legacy: Known as the “patient assassin” for his calculated approach to the assassination.

81. A clock is set right at 6 a.m. It gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the right time when the clock indicates 11 a.m. on the next day?

(A) 48 minutes past

(B) 50 minutes past 10

(D) 10 a.m.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

To determine the right time when the clock indicates 11 a.m. the next day, we need to account for the gain of the clock.

Total Time Elapsed: From 6 a.m. on the first day to 11 a.m. on the second day is 29 hours.
Clock Gain: The clock gains 10 minutes every 24 hours. In 29 hours:

Gain= (10 minutes/24 hours) ×29 hours= 290/24≈12.08 minutes

Correct Time: When the clock shows 11 a.m., it has gained approximately 12.08 minutes. Therefore, the actual time is:

11:00 a.m.−12 minutes≈10:48 a.m.

So, the right time when the clock indicates 11 a.m. is approximately 10:48 a.m.

The closest answer choice is (A) 48 minutes past.

82. At what time between 5 and 6 will the two hands of a watch coincide?

(A) 27 minutes past 5

(B) 27 (3/11) minutes past 5

(D) 26 minutes past S

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To find the time between 5 and 6 when the hands of the clock coincide, we can use the formula:

Time= (60×H) ÷11

where H is the hour.

For 𝐻=5:

Time= (60×5) ÷ 11= 300 ÷ 11 ≈27.27 minutes

This means the hands will coincide at approximately 27 minutes and 3/11 of a minute past 5.

Thus, the answer is (B) 27 (3/11) minutes past 5.

83. Anil and Suman together can do a work in 12 days, which Anil alone can do in 20 days. If Suman alone has to do this work, he will take

(A) 28 days

(B) 29 days

(D) 27 days

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To find out how many days Suman alone would take to complete the work, we can start by determining their work rates.

1. Anil’s Work Rate:

Anil can complete the work in 20 days, so his work rate is:

Rate of Anil= 1/20 work/day

2. Combined Work Rate of Anil and Suman:

Together, Anil and Suman can complete the work in 12 days, so their combined work rate is:

Rate of Anil + Suman= 1/12 work/day

3. Suman’s Work Rate:

Let Suman’s work rate be 𝑅𝑠.
Therefore:

Rate of Anil + Rate of Suman= 1/12

(1/20) + 𝑅𝑠= 1/12

To solve for 𝑅𝑠, we first find a common denominator for the fractions (which is 60):

(3/60) + 𝑅𝑠 = 5/60

𝑅𝑠 = (5/60)- (3/60) = 2/60 = 1/30 work/day

4. Time Taken by Suman Alone:

Since Suman’s work rate is 1/30 work/day, she can complete the work in:

Time= 1/Rate of Suman = 30 days

Thus, Suman alone will take 30 days to complete the work.

The answer is (C) 30 days.

84. In a class of 55 students, 34 like to play Cricket and 26 like to play Badminton. Also, each student likes to play at least one of the two games. How many students like to play both Cricket and Badminton?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 3

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To find the number of students who like to play both Cricket and Badminton, we can use the principle of inclusion-exclusion.

Let:

C = number of students who like Cricket = 34
𝐵
B = number of students who like Badminton = 26
𝑁
N = total number of students = 55
x = number of students who like both games

According to the principle of inclusion-exclusion, we have:

N=C+B−x

Substituting the values:

55=34+26−x

This simplifies to:

55=60−x

Now, rearranging gives:

x=60−55=5

Therefore, the number of students who like to play both Cricket and Badminton is 5.

The answer is (B) 5.

85. What are the two natural numbers whose product is 2400 and the sum of whose squares is 5200?

(A) 80, 30

(B) 75, 32

(D) 120, 20

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Given:

Product of two numbers = 2400

Sum of squares of the two numbers = 5200

Let the two numbers be x and y:

xy = 2400

x² + y² = 5200

Finding the two numbers:

Step 1: Finding the two numbers using the product:

We need to find two numbers whose product is 2400.

Factors of 2400 are:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 16, 20, 24, 25, 30, 32, 40, 48, 50, 60, 75, 80, 96, 100, 120, 150, 200, 240, 300, 400, 600, 1200, 2400

From the factors, the pair that satisfies the given condition is 60 and 40 since 60×40 = 2400.

Step 2: Finding the two numbers using the sum of squares:

We need to find two numbers whose sum of squares is 5200.

Substitute x = 60 and y = 40 into the equation:

60² + 40² = 3600 + 1600 = 5200

Therefore, the two natural numbers are 60 and 40.

The two natural numbers whose product is 2400 and the sum of whose squares is 5200 are 60 and 40. Hence, option ‘C’ is the correct answer.

86. How many numbers between 100 and 500 are divisible by 4, 5 and 6?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(D) 5

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To find the numbers between 100 and 500 that are divisible by 4, 5, and 6, we first determine the least common multiple (LCM) of these numbers.

1.Find LCM of 4, 5, and 6:

4=2²
5=5¹
6=2¹×3¹

The LCM is 2²×3¹×5¹=60.

2. Determine the range:

We need numbers between 100 and 500.

3. Find the smallest multiple of 60 greater than or equal to 100:

60×2=120

4. Find the largest multiple of 60 less than or equal to 500:

60×8=480

5. Calculate the multiples of 60 from 120 to 480:

The multiples are:120,180,240,300,360,420,480.

Counting these gives us 7 multiples.

Thus, the answer is:(B) 7.

87. In a mixture of 70 kg, the ratio of sand and cement is 4: 1. How much sand should be added to the mixture so that the ratio of sand and cement in it becomes 6: 1?

(A) 28 kg.

(B) 30 kg

(D) 24 kg

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In the mixture of 70 kg, with a sand to cement ratio of 4:1, we can find the amounts of sand and cement.

1. Calculate the initial amounts:

Let the amount of sand be 4𝑥 and cement be x.
Therefore, 4𝑥+𝑥=70 kg.
5x=70 kg, giving 𝑥=14x=14 kg.
Thus, sand = 4𝑥=56 kg and cement =14 kg.

2. New ratio requirement:

We want the ratio of sand to cement to be 6:1.
Let y be the amount of sand to be added.
The new amount of sand will be 56+𝑦 and the cement remains 14.

3. Set up the equation based on the new ratio:

(56+y) ÷14 = 6

4. Solve for y:

56+y=6×14

56+y=84

y=84−56=28

Thus, the amount of sand to be added is 28 kg.

The answer is: (A) 28 kg.

88. Shashi loses 25% by selling oranges at the rate of 150 per dozen. At what rate should she sell them to get a profit of 20%?

(A) 230 per dozen

(B) 240 per dozen

(D) 220 per dozen

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To find the selling price Shashi needs to achieve a 20% profit, we first need to determine the cost price (CP) of the oranges.

1. Determine the selling price (SP) when losing 25%:

Let the cost price of a dozen oranges be CP.
If Shashi loses 25%, her selling price is:

SP=CP−0.25×CP=0.75×CP

We know that 𝑆𝑃=150 per dozen, so:

0.75×CP=150

Thus,

CP= 150 ÷ 0.75 = 200

2. Calculate the required selling price for a 20% profit:

A 20% profit on the cost price means:

SP=CP+0.20×CP=1.20×CP

Substituting the cost price:

SP=1.20×200=240

Therefore, to achieve a 20% profit, Shashi should sell the oranges at 240 per dozen.

The answer is:(B) 240 per dozen

89. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 24 cm. Its perimeter is

(A) 52 cm

(B) 56 cm

(D) 48 cm

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Given:

First diagonals (d1) = 24 cm
Second diagonals (d2) = 10 cm

Formula used:

The perimeter of rhombus = 4 × length of the side

Calculations:

⇒ Diagonals of rhombus intersect each other at the angle of 90º

⇒ OD2 + OA2 = AD2

⇒ 52 + 122 = AD2

⇒ 25 + 144 = AD2

⇒ 169 = AD2

⇒ AD = 13 cm

⇒ the perimeter of rhombus = 4 × 13

⇒ the perimeter of rhombus = 52 cm

∴ The perimeter of rhombus is 52 cm.

90. A train of length 140 m is running at a speed of 60 km/hr and a dog is running in the same direction parallel to the train at a speed of 18 km/hr. The train will cross the dog in

(A) 11 seconds

(B) 12 seconds

(D) 10 seconds

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To find out how long it takes for the train to cross the dog, we need to calculate the relative speed between the train and the dog, and then use that to determine the time taken.

1. Convert the speeds from km/hr to m/s:

Speed of the train:

60 km/hr= (60×1000) ÷3600 = 60000÷3600= 16.67m/s

Speed of the dog:

18 km/hr= (18×1000) ÷ 3600=18000÷3600 =5 m/s

2. Calculate the relative speed: Since the dog is running in the same direction as the train, we subtract the speed of the dog from the speed of the train:

Relative speed=16.67 m/s−5 m/s=11.67 m/s

3. Calculate the time taken to cross the dog: The time taken to cross the dog is the length of the train divided by the relative speed:

Time=Length of the train ÷ Relative speed= 140m÷11.67 m/s ≈12 seconds

Thus, the train will cross the dog in approximately 12 seconds.

The answer is: (B) 12 seconds.

91. What type of lens is used in magnifying glass?

(A) Plano-concave lens

(B) Convex lens

(D) Concave lens

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

A magnifying glass uses a convex lens (B).

Convex lenses are thicker in the center and cause parallel light rays to converge. When you place an object within the focal length of the lens, it produces a larger virtual image that appears upright.
This magnification effect occurs because the light rays diverge as they exit the lens, making the object look bigger to the eye.
Other options like plano-concave lenses, convex mirrors, and concave lenses do not produce the same magnifying effect.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Convex lens.

92. The paramagnetic theory of magnetism applies to

(A) mercury

(B) iron

(D) nickel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The paramagnetic theory of magnetism applies to platinum (C).

Paramagnetic materials have unpaired electrons that align with an external magnetic field, causing a weak attraction. Platinum exhibits this behavior, as it has unpaired electrons in its electron configuration.
In contrast, iron (B) and nickel (D) are ferromagnetic, meaning they have strong magnetic properties and retain magnetism even after the external field is removed. Mercury (A) is not paramagnetic; it exhibits diamagnetism.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Platinum, as it specifically demonstrates paramagnetic characteristics.

93. The nucleus of an atom consists of

(A) electrons and protons

(B) protons and neutrons

(D) electrons and neutrons

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The nucleus of an atom consists of protons and neutrons (B).

Protons are positively charged particles, while neutrons have no charge, together making up the atomic mass and contributing to the nucleus’s stability. Electrons, which are negatively charged, are found in orbitals surrounding the nucleus, not within it. Thus, options (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect.
The nucleus plays a critical role in defining the element’s identity and stability, while electrons determine chemical properties and reactivity.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Protons and neutrons.

94. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called

(A) roasting

(B) calcination

(D) smelting

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) smelting.

Smelting is a metallurgical process that involves heating a metal ore or concentrate in a furnace with a reducing agent, such as carbon or carbon monoxide, to extract the metal in a molten or fused state. This process is typically used for metals that are difficult to reduce by other methods, such as iron, copper, and lead.
Roasting: This process is used to convert sulfide ores into oxides by heating them in air.
Calcination: This process is used to decompose carbonates and other compounds by heating them.
Froth flotation: This is a physical separation process used to concentrate minerals from ore.

Therefore, smelting is the unique process among the options that specifically involves extracting metal in a fused state.

So,the answer is: (D) smelting

95. Which among the following are constituents of brass?

(A) Iron and zinc

(B) Copper and nickel

(D) Zinc and copper

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Zinc and copper.

Brass is a metal alloy composed primarily of copper and zinc.
The proportions of copper and zinc can vary depending on the desired properties of the brass. For example, a higher percentage of zinc can make the brass more ductile and malleable, while a higher percentage of copper can make it stronger and harder.

96. Which among the following is known as quicklime?

(A) CaCO₂

(B) Ca (OH)₂

(D) CaO

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) CaO.

CaO is the chemical formula for quicklime. It is a white, caustic, alkaline substance produced by heating limestone (calcium carbonate) to a high temperature.
Quicklime is widely used in various industries, including construction, agriculture, and water treatment.

97. What happens to the weight of iron, when it rusts?

(A) Decreases then increases

(B) Increases then decreases

(D) Increases for long time

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Increases for a long time.

When iron rusts, it undergoes a chemical reaction with oxygen in the air to form iron oxide (rust).
This reaction involves the combination of iron atoms with oxygen atoms, resulting in an increase in the mass of the iron object. Over time, as the rust layer thickens, the weight of the iron object continues to increase.

98. Which among the following is also known as white metal?

(A) Rhodium

(B) Platinum

(D) Nickel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Platinum.

Platinum is often referred to as “white metal” due to its silvery-white color. It is a precious metal known for its high melting point, resistance to corrosion, and malleability.
Platinum is used in various applications, including jewelry, industrial catalysts, and medical devices.

99. Consider the following statements with respect to noble metals:

1. Noble metals are found in pure form in nature.

2. Uranium and lead are examples of noble metal.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 2 only

(B) Both 1 and 2

(D) 1 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

To evaluate the statements:

Noble metals are found in pure form in nature.

This statement is generally correct. Noble metals, such as gold and silver, are often found in their pure metallic state in nature.

Uranium and lead are examples of noble metal.

This statement is incorrect. Uranium is not considered a noble metal; it is primarily known for its radioactivity. Lead is also not classified as a noble metal.

Based on this evaluation: Only Statement 1 is correct.

So, the correct answer is (D) 1 only.

100. Consider the following statements:

1. Addition of salt to pure water increases the boiling point of water and decreases the freezing point of water.

2. When methyl alcohol is added to water boiling point of water decreases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Salt and methyl alcohol are same in behaviour

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Both 1 and 2.

Addition of salt to pure water increases the boiling point of water and decreases the freezing point of water.

This is correct. This phenomenon is known as boiling point elevation and freezing point depression. Adding a solute (like salt) to a solvent (like water) disrupts the intermolecular forces, making it harder for the solvent to boil or freeze at the same temperature.

When methyl alcohol is added to water boiling point of water decreases.

This is also correct. Methyl alcohol is a volatile substance, meaning it has a relatively low boiling point. When added to water, it can lower the overall boiling point of the mixture. This is because the methyl alcohol molecules have a lower boiling point than water molecules, so they vaporize more easily, reducing the overall vapor pressure of the solution.

Therefore, both statements are true.

101. Which among the following is the main constituent of biogas?

(A) Propane

(B) Butane

(D) Methane

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Methane.

Methane is the primary constituent of biogas, typically accounting for 50-70% of its volume. Other components of biogas include carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, and trace amounts of other gases.

102. Which among the following would cause the bright red colour due to bursting of crackers?

(A) Sodium

(B) Sulphur

(D) Strontium

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Strontium.

Strontium compounds are commonly used in fireworks and other pyrotechnics to produce a bright red color when burned. The specific compound used is often strontium nitrate.

103. What are salt-loving plants called?

(A) Mesophytes

(B) Glycophytes

(D) Xerophytes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Halophytes.

Halophytes are plants that have adapted to thrive in environments with high salinity levels, such as salt marshes, estuaries, and saline soils. They possess specialized mechanisms to tolerate and even utilize the high salt concentrations in their environment.

104. Fungi are plants that lack

(A) carbon dioxide

(B) chlorophyll

(D) oxygen

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) chlorophyll.

Fungi are heterotrophs, meaning they obtain their nutrients from other organisms. Unlike plants, which are autotrophs and produce their own food through photosynthesis, fungi lack chlorophyll, the pigment necessary for photosynthesis.

Therefore, they cannot produce their own food and must rely on decomposing organic matter or parasitizing other organisms for sustenance.

105. Pollination is best defined as

(A) germination of pollen grains

(B) growth of pollen tube in ovule

(D) transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma.

Pollination is the process by which pollen grains are transferred from the anther (the male part of a flower) to the stigma (the female part of a flower). This transfer is essential for fertilization to occur and seeds to develop.

106. Plants receive their nutrients mainly from

(A) atmosphere

(B) light

(D) chlorophyll

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) soil.

Plants primarily obtain their nutrients from the soil. They absorb water and minerals through their roots, which are specifically adapted for nutrient uptake.

While light, carbon dioxide, and chlorophyll are essential for photosynthesis, they do not provide the primary source of nutrients for plants.

107. Pine, Fir, Spruce, Cedar, Larch and Cypress are the famous timber-yielding plants of which several also occur widely in the hilly regions of India. All these belong to

(A) gymnosperm

(B) monocotyledons

(D) angiosperm

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) gymnosperm.

Pine, Fir, Spruce, Cedar, Larch, and Cypress are all examples of gymnosperms.
Gymnosperms are a group of seed plants that produce naked seeds, meaning they are not enclosed in a fruit.
They are characterized by their cone-bearing structures, which contain the seeds. These plants are known for their timber value and are widely found in hilly regions of India, such as the Himalayas.

108. From the following pairs, find the one which is correctly matched.

(A) Tuberculosis-ATS

(B) Tetanus-BCG

(D) Scurvy-Thiamine

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Malaria-Chloroquine.

Tuberculosis (TB): The primary treatment for TB is a combination of antibiotics, not ATS.
Tetanus: The vaccine used to prevent tetanus is Tetanus Toxoid (TT), not BCG. BCG is a vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis.
Malaria: Chloroquine is an effective drug for treating malaria, especially in regions where the malaria parasite is not resistant to it.
Scurvy: Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, not thiamine. Thiamine is a vitamin essential for nerve function and energy production.

Therefore, the pair “Malaria-Chloroquine” is correctly matched.

109. The animal without red blood cells is

(A) earthworm

(B) snake

(D) frog

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) earthworm.

While most animals have red blood cells containing hemoglobin, which gives blood its red color, earthworms do not. Their blood is a bluish color due to the presence of a protein called hemerythrin. This protein is responsible for transporting oxygen throughout their bodies.

110. The ultimate substance to which the carbohydrates are degraded, is

(A) glycerol

(B) glucose

(D) amino acid

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) glucose.

Carbohydrates are broken down through a process called digestion. The ultimate product of carbohydrate digestion is glucose, a simple sugar that can be absorbed into the bloodstream for energy or stored in the liver and muscles as glycogen.

111. Most of the enzymes are

(A) lipids

(B) acids

(D) proteins

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) proteins.

Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in living organisms. They are primarily composed of proteins, which are large, complex molecules made up of amino acids. The specific amino acid sequence of an enzyme determines its shape and function.

112. Who was the first scientist/doctor, who attempted vaccination?

(A) Robert Koch

(B) Elie Metchnikoff

(D) Joseph Lister

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Edward Jenner.

Edward Jenner: Edward Jenner is credited with developing the first vaccine, specifically for smallpox. He observed that people who had contracted cowpox were immune to smallpox, and he tested this theory by inoculating a young boy with cowpox material. The boy developed a mild illness but was then immune to smallpox when exposed to it. This groundbreaking discovery led to the development of vaccination as a method of preventing infectious diseases.
Robert Koch: A pioneering microbiologist, Robert Koch is best known for developing postulates to establish a causal relationship between pathogens and diseases. He identified the bacteria causing tuberculosis and anthrax, significantly advancing the field of bacteriology and laying the groundwork for modern infectious disease research.
Elie Metchnikoff: Elie Metchnikoff was a Russian biologist who discovered phagocytosis, the process by which certain immune cells engulf and digest pathogens. His work laid the foundation for immunology, and he received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1908 for his contributions to understanding the immune system.
Joseph Lister: Joseph Lister was a British surgeon who pioneered antiseptic techniques in surgery. He introduced the use of carbolic acid (phenol) to sterilize surgical instruments and clean wounds, dramatically reducing infections and mortality rates. His work revolutionized surgical practice and laid the groundwork for modern aseptic techniques.

113. The working principle of a washing machine is

(A) diffusion

(B) centrifugation

(D) reverse osmosis

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The working principle of a washing machine is (B) centrifugation.

Centrifugation: Centrifugation is the process of separating components of a mixture based on their density by spinning them at high speeds. In a washing machine, the spinning drum forces water and detergent to be expelled from the clothes, leaving them clean.
Diffusion: Diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration, achieving uniform distribution. It occurs spontaneously and is essential in biological systems for processes like nutrient uptake and gas exchange.
Dialysis: Dialysis is a process that separates small molecules from larger ones in a solution using a semi-permeable membrane. It’s often used in medical settings to filter blood, removing waste products.
Reverse Osmosis: Reverse osmosis is a water purification method that forces water through a semi-permeable membrane under pressure, effectively removing impurities, salts, and contaminants. It’s commonly used for desalination and producing clean drinking water.

114. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through

(A) vacuum

(B) air

(D) water

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The speed of light is minimum while passing through (C) glass.

In different media, light travels at varying speeds; it travels fastest in a vacuum, and its speed decreases in materials like air, water, and glass, with glass having the lowest speed among these options.

115. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

(A) Velocity

(B) Torque

(D) Speed

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Speed.

Speed: Speed is a scalar quantity, meaning it has only magnitude (size) and no direction. Velocity, on the other hand, is a vector quantity, as it has both magnitude and direction.
Velocity: A vector quantity that specifies both the rate of change of position (magnitude) and the direction of motion.
Torque: A vector quantity that measures the rotational force acting on an object.
Displacement: A vector quantity that represents the change in position of an object, including both the distance and direction.

Therefore, among the given options, speed is the only one that is not a vector quantity.

116. If the spinning speed of the earth increases, then the weight of the body at the equator will

(A) decrease

(B) remain same

(D) increase

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) decrease.

If the spinning speed of the Earth increases, the centrifugal force acting on a body at the equator would also increase. Centrifugal force acts outward, opposing the gravitational force that pulls the body towards the Earth’s center. As the centrifugal force increases, it would counteract the gravitational force more effectively, resulting in a decrease in the perceived weight of the body.

117. Who is the first person to define speed?

(A) Newton

(B) Kepler

(D) Galileo

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Galileo.

Galileo Galilei: Galileo Galilei is credited with being the first person to define speed as the distance traveled per unit time. His work on motion and mechanics laid the foundation for classical physics.
Newton: Sir Isaac Newton was a mathematician and physicist known for formulating the laws of motion and universal gravitation, laying the foundation for classical mechanics.
Kepler: Johannes Kepler was a German astronomer who formulated the laws of planetary motion, describing the elliptical orbits of planets and enhancing the heliocentric model of the solar system.
Ptolemy: Claudius Ptolemy was an ancient Greek astronomer and mathematician known for the geocentric model of the universe, detailed in his work, the “Almagest,” which dominated astronomy for centuries.

118. What is the law in which under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules?

(A) Graham’s law

(B) Pascal’s law

(D) Coriolis effect

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The law stating that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain equal numbers of molecules is known as (C) Avogadro’s law.
Graham’s Law: Graham’s Law states that the rates of effusion or diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses, explaining lighter gases move faster.
Pascal’s Law: Pascal’s Law states that a change in pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished throughout the fluid, forming the basis for hydraulic systems.
Coriolis Effect: The Coriolis Effect describes the deflection of moving objects, such as air and water, due to Earth’s rotation, influencing weather patterns and ocean currents.

119. The ‘theory of relativity’ is presented by which scientist?

(A) Isaac Newton

(B) Stephen Hawking

(D) Albert Einstein

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Albert Einstein.

Albert Einstein: Albert Einstein is the scientist credited with developing the theory of relativity. His theory fundamentally changed our understanding of space, time, gravity, and the universe. The theory of relativity consists of two main parts:
Special Relativity: Deals with the relationship between space and time for objects moving at speeds close to the speed of light.
General Relativity: Expands on special relativity to explain gravity as a curvature of spacetime caused by massive objects.
Isaac Newton: Isaac Newton was a mathematician and physicist known for formulating the laws of motion and universal gravitation, revolutionizing classical mechanics and laying the groundwork for modern physics.
Stephen Hawking: Stephen Hawking was a theoretical physicist and cosmologist famous for his work on black holes and the nature of the universe, authoring “A Brief History of Time” to popularize science.
Marie Curie: Marie Curie was a pioneering physicist and chemist who conducted groundbreaking research on radioactivity, becoming the first woman to win a Nobel Prize and the only person to win in two sciences.

120. Due to temperature variation along conductor, potential variation occurs along it. This phenomenon is known as

(A) Joule effect

(B) Seebeck effect

(D) Thomson effect

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Thomson effect.

Thomson effect: The Thomson effect is the phenomenon where a temperature gradient along a conductor can cause a potential difference (voltage) to develop. This occurs due to the interaction between electrons and the crystal lattice of the conductor. The direction and magnitude of the potential difference depend on the type of material and the temperature gradient.
Joule Effect: The Joule Effect refers to the phenomenon where electrical energy is converted into heat when an electric current flows through a conductor, leading to resistive heating.
Seebeck Effect: The Seebeck Effect is the generation of an electric voltage across two different conductors or semiconductors when there is a temperature difference between them, forming the basis for thermoelectric generators.
Peltier Effect: The Peltier Effect describes the heating or cooling that occurs at the junction of two different conductors when an electric current passes through, used in thermoelectric cooling devices.

121. Who has become the first player to cross 3000 runs in the T20 International?

(A) Steve Smith

(B) Babar Azam

(D) Virat Kohli

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Virat Kohli.

Virat Kohli became the first cricketer to score 3000 runs in T20 International matches. He achieved this milestone during a match against England in 2021.

Here are various records held by Virat Kohli:

Fastest Century: Fastest century in ODIs off 52 balls.
Most ODI Chases: Holds the record for the most runs in successful ODI chases.
Most Hundreds: Record for the most centuries in ODIs and T20Is.
Test Records: Fastest to 8,000, 9,000, and 10,000 runs in Tests.
Captaining Success: Most wins as Indian Test captain.

122. What is the name of the campaign launched to ensure complete COVID-19 vaccination (in June 2022)?

(A) Atmanirbhar Vaccine Campaign 2.0

(B) Pradhan Mantri Vaccine Campaign

(D) Har Ghar Dastak Campaign 2.0

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Har Ghar Dastak Campaign 2.0.

The Har Ghar Dastak Campaign 2.0 was launched in June 2022 with the aim of ensuring complete COVID-19 vaccination coverage in India.
The campaign involved a door-to-door vaccination drive to reach out to all eligible beneficiaries and address any vaccine hesitancy.

123. Who is the new Chief Minister of Maharashtra after 30th June, 2022?

(A) Eknath Shinde

(B) Ashok Chavan

(D) Devendra Fadnavis

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Eknath Shinde.

Eknath Shinde became the Chief Minister of Maharashtra on June 30, 2022, after a political upheaval that led to the collapse of the previous coalition government.

124. Who has started the Har Ghar Tiranga Abhiyan on the occasion of India’s 75th Independence Day?

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Indian Army

(D) Election Commission

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Central Government.

The Har Ghar Tiranga Abhiyan was launched by the Central Government on the occasion of India’s 75th Independence Day to encourage citizens to hoist the Indian flag at their homes.
This initiative was part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

125. Which State has become the first State in the country to initiate the process of implementing the Centre’s New Education Policy?

(A) Haryana

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Uttarakhand

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Uttarakhand.

Uttarakhand became the first state in India to initiate the implementation of the Centre’s New Education Policy (NEP). The state began this process by introducing “Bal Vatikas” (play-based learning centers) at Anganwadi Kendras across the state. This marked a significant step towards revamping the education system in India and aligning it with the goals of the NEP.

126. Consider the following pairs of the Governors and the Indian States:

State Governor

1. Rajasthan Kalraj Mishra

2. Uttar Pradesh Anandiben Patel

3. West Bengal Satya Pal Malik

4. Gujarat Phagu Chauhan

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(A) 3 and 4 only

(B) 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

At that time, the correct matches for the governors of the states as of the latest information are:

Rajasthan – Kalraj Mishra (Correct, but the governor is currently Haribhau Bagade)
Uttar Pradesh – Anandiben Patel (Correct)
West Bengal – Satya Pal Malik (Incorrect; the governor is currently Jagdeep Dhankhar)
Gujarat – Phagu Chauhan (Incorrect; the governor is currently Acharya Devvrat)

Based on this:

The correctly matched pairs are 1 and 2 only.

Thus, the answer is (D) 1 and 2 only.

127. Which of the following ministries/ organizations has released ‘Youth in India Report, 2022’?

(A) Population Foundation of India

(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI)

(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).

The “Youth in India Report, 2022” was released by the National Statistical Office, which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). This report provides comprehensive data on the socio-economic indicators of young people in India.

128. Elavenil Valarivan, Shreya Agarwal and Ramita, seen in the news, are associated with which sports?

(A) Shooting

(B) Fencing

(D) Wrestling

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Elavenil Valarivan, Shreya Agarwal, and Ramita are associated with (A) Shooting. They are known for their achievements in the sport of shooting, particularly in various competitive events.

So, the answer is (A) Shooting.

129. Recently who has been assigned the charge of the Ministry of Minority Affairs?

(A) Amit Shah

(B) Nirmala Sitharaman

(D) Smriti Irani

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

At that time, the charge of the Ministry of Minority Affairs had been assigned to (D) Smriti Irani.
The current Ministry of Minority Affairs (MoMA) is led by Kiren Rijiju. As the Union Cabinet Minister, he took charge of the ministry on June 11, 2024. He was administered the oath of office and secrecy by the President at Rashtrapati Bhawan on June 9, 2024.

130. Who was the candidate of the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) in 15th Presidential Election in India?

(A) Shatrughan Sinha

(B) Droupadi Murmu

(D) Yashwant Sinha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The 15th Presidential Election in India took place on July 18, 2022. Droupadi Murmu was the candidate from the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) and Yashwant Sinha represented the United Progressive Alliance (UPA).
Droupadi Murmu won the election, becoming the first tribal woman and the second woman overall to hold the office of President of India. She took office on July 25, 2022.

So, the answer is (D) Yashwant Sinha

131. Who has received the International Booker Prize for her novel, Tomb of Sand (Ret Samadhi)?

(A) Arundhati Roy

(B) Anita Desai

(D) Geetanjali Shree

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Geetanjali Shree.

Geetanjali Shree won the International Booker Prize in 2022 for her novel “Tomb of Sand” (Ret Samadhi). It was the first time a book written in an Indian language was awarded the prestigious prize.

About International Booker Prize

The International Booker Prize is a prestigious literary award presented annually to a book translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland. Established in 2005, it celebrates the excellence of international fiction and the work of translators.
The prize aims to promote literature from around the world, highlighting the importance of translation in making diverse voices accessible to a wider audience. Each year, a panel of judges selects the winning title, and both the author and the translator receive a cash award.
The prize has gained recognition for showcasing outstanding literary works from various cultures.

132. Who has been awarded with the Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award in 2022 from Bihar?

(A) Deep Shrestha

(B) Madan Pande

(D) Sharad Sinha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The person awarded the Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award in 2022 from Bihar is (A) Deep Shrestha.

About Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award

The Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award is an annual award that honors outstanding contributions to Indian television. Established in memory of Dadasaheb Phalke, the father of Indian cinema, the award aims to recognize excellence in various fields of television, including acting, directing, and production.
It celebrates both established and emerging talents, highlighting the diversity and creativity of Indian television. The awards are presented in multiple categories, acknowledging the hard work and dedication of individuals and teams in the industry.
The ceremony typically features performances and tributes, making it a significant event in the Indian entertainment landscape.

133. According to the Economic Survey of Bihar 2021-22, what is the level of urbanization in the State at present?

(A) 22.4%

(B) 15.3%

(D) 11.6%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

According to the Economic Survey of Bihar 2021-22, the level of urbanization in Bihar is 15.3%, reflecting significant growth over the past decade.
According to the 2011 census, Bihar’s urbanization rate was just 11.3%. At that time, the state accounted for only 3.1% of the country’s total urban population.

So, the answer is (B) 15.3%

The state government is optimistic that urbanization will continue to rise, driven by a rapidly growing urban economy.
From 2016-17 to 2020-21, Bihar experienced notable growth rates: 2.3% in the primary sector, 4.8% in the secondary sector, and 8.5% in the tertiary sector. Agriculture and allied sectors also grew at a rate of 2.1% during this period.

134. Who is the Brand Ambassador of Khadi in Bihar?

(A) Rajesh Tiwari

(B) Manoj Tiwari

(D) Pawan Singh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Bihar had appointed Manoj Tiwari as brand ambassador for Khadi. Bhojpuri singer and BJP MP Manoj Tiwari was the brand ambassador of Bihar’s Khadi and other handicrafts.
State minister Syed Shahnawaz Hussain had announced that he would be the “brand ambassador” for Bihar’s Khadi and other handicrafts. Manoj Tiwari will promote the use of Khadi fabric, which was popularized by Mahatma Gandhi during India’s independence movement.

So, the answer is (B) Manoj Tiwari

135. In which district of Bihar, the world’s tallest (251 m) statue of Mother Sita will be constructed?

(A) Sitamarhi

(B) Bodh Gaya

(D) Madhubani

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The world’s tallest statue of Mother Sita, measuring 251 meters, will be constructed in (A) Sitamarhi district, Bihar.
The statue of Bhagwati Sita in Sitamarhi, standing at an impressive 251 meters, will be a monumental tribute to Mata Janaki, celebrating her cultural significance as the embodiment of Indian values. Surrounding this towering statue, 108 smaller statues of Bhagwati Sita will be arranged in a circular formation, each representing different aspects of her philosophy and virtues.
These statues will visually convey her life lessons and principles without the need for words, emphasizing her role as a symbol of strength, devotion, and resilience in Indian culture. This project aims to inspire and promote the rich heritage and moral values of India.

136. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

a. Governor of Bihar 1. Mr. Nitish Kumar

b. Chief Justice of Bihar 2. Mr. H. R. Srinivas

c. Chief Minister of Bihar 3. Mr. Sanjay Karol

d. Chief Electoral Officer of Bihar 4. Mr. Fagu Chauhan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a b c d

1 2 3 4

a b c d

4 3 1 2

a b c d

4 2 1 3

a b c d

3 2 1 4

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct matches are:

Governor of Bihar – 4. Mr. Fagu Chauhan

Chief Justice of Bihar – 3. Mr. Sanjay Karol

Chief Minister of Bihar – 1. Mr. Nitish Kumar

Chief Electoral Officer of Bihar – 2. Mr. H. R. Srinivas

So, the correct answer is (B) a b c d

4 3 1 2.

137. The ‘Operation Prahar’ in Bihar is related to

(A) literacy campaign

(B) no smoking

(D) COVID-19 vaccination

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The ‘Operation Prahar’ in Bihar is related to (C) liquor ban. This initiative aims to enforce the state’s prohibition laws more effectively.
Bihar implemented a complete liquor ban in April 2016, making it one of the first Indian states to enforce such a prohibition. The ban aims to address issues related to alcohol abuse, improve public health, and enhance social welfare.

Key aspects include:

Legal Prohibition: The sale, consumption, and possession of alcohol are prohibited, with strict penalties for violations.
Operation Prahar: This initiative was launched to enforce the liquor ban more effectively and to curb illegal alcohol production and distribution.
Public Health Focus: The government promotes awareness campaigns about the harmful effects of alcohol consumption.
Impact on Society: The ban has aimed to reduce domestic violence and improve the quality of life for families affected by alcohol abuse.

138. Hrithik Anand from Bihar has won which medal for India at the 24th Summer Deaf Badminton Olympics held in Brazil?

(A) Silver medal

(B) Bronze medal

(D) Gold medal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Hrithik Anand from Hajipur, Bihar, made history by winning the first gold medal for India in the 24th Summer Deaf Badminton Tournament held in Brazil. He showcased exceptional skill and determination by defeating teams from Brazil, China, Turkey, and France, ultimately triumphing over Japan in the final match to secure the gold medal.
His achievement is a significant milestone for Indian badminton and highlights the growing success of athletes in the deaf sports category.

So, the answer is (D) Gold medal

139. At which place in Bihar, North India’s first bird ringing station has been recently opened?

(A) Saran

(B) East Champaran

(D) Bhagalpur

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Bhagalpur has become north India’s first bird ringing station opened to facilitate observation, monitoring and research of migratory birds.
The initiative aims to enhance understanding of bird migration patterns and contribute to conservation efforts.
The station will play a key role in studying bird species, their habitats and the ecological impact of migration, thereby promoting biodiversity and environmental awareness in the region.

So, the answer is (D) Bhagalpur

140. Which of the following in Bihar started the Vulture’s Conservation Plan?

(A) Rajgir Wildlife Sanctuary

(B) Valmiki Tiger Reserve

(D) Kaimur Tiger Reserve

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Valmiki Tiger ReserveThe Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Bihar started the Vulture’s Conservation Plan after 150 vultures were spotted in the area in July 2021. Forest officials have proposed setting up a vulture conservation center in the reserve, similar to Uttarakhand’s Corbett National Park.

Therefore, correct answer is (B) Valmiki Tiger Reserve

The Bihar government is also focusing on conserving the state’s rhino species

141. Sunandini Program’ is related to the

(A) Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs)

(B) primary health centre’s doctors

(D) Anganwadi workers

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Sunandini program is an initiative aimed at improving the educational qualifications of Anganwadi workers in Bihar, India. It’s a joint effort by the Social Welfare Department and the Bihar Open School Education and Examination Board.

So, the answer is (D) Anganwadi workers

Some key aspects of the Sunandini program:

Educational Upgradation: The program provides Anganwadi workers with the opportunity to pursue online education and obtain a certificate course in Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE).
Enhanced Skill Development: The certificate course equips Anganwadi workers with the necessary skills to effectively care for and educate young children.
Improved Childcare Quality: By improving the educational qualifications of Anganwadi workers, the Sunandini program aims to enhance the quality of childcare provided at Anganwadi centers.
The Sunandini program is a significant step towards strengthening the early childhood education system in Bihar and ensuring that young children receive quality care and education.

142. Which country’s former Prime Minister Shinzo Abe was shot dead during the election campaign in July 2022?

(A) Japan

(B) Ukraine

(D) France

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Japan.

Shinzo Abe, the former Prime Minister of Japan, was shot dead during an election campaign in July 2022. This incident occurred in Nara, Japan.
Fumio Kishida is a Japanese politician serving as Prime Minister of Japan and President of the Liberal Democratic Party since 2021.

143. The UN General Assembly has adopted an India-sponsored resolution on multi- lingualism. Which language is mentioned in that for the first time?

(A) Sanskrit

(B) Bengali

(D) Urdu

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is Hindi. The UN General Assembly (UNGA) has adopted an India-sponsored resolution on multilingualism that mentions the Hindi language for the first time.
The UN General Assembly (UNGA) adopted an India-sponsored resolution on multilingualism that mentions the Hindi language for the first time, passing the resolution on June 10, 2022. This resolution urges the United Nations to continue disseminating important communications in both official and non-official languages, including Hindi.

Key points include:

Multilingualism is recognized as a core value of the UN.
The six official languages of the UN are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish.
English and French are the working languages for the UN Secretariat.

144. Who presided an emergency session of the General Assembly to discuss Russia’s military operations in Ukraine?

(A) Volkan Bozkir

(B) António Guterres

(D) Abdulla Shahid

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is Abdulla Shahid.

The UN held an emergency session of the General Assembly on 28 February 2022 to discuss Russia’s military operations in Ukraine.
UNGA President Abdulla Shahid presided over the 11th Emergency Special Session of the General Assembly, at the UN Headquarters in New York.
The UN Security Council voted to hold the special emergency session of UNGA.
India abstained from voting on the resolution.

Important Points

Russia voted against it and eleven UNSC members voted in favour of it.
Given the vote was procedural, no country had a veto, and the resolution was adopted.
China, and the United Arab Emirates also abstained.

Additional Information

UNSC is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, charged with ensuring international peace and security, recommending the admission of new UN members to the General Assembly, and approving any changes to the UN Charter.
It is headquartered in New York, United States.

145. India evacuated people as part of which mission to bring Indians from war-hit Ukraine, in February 2022?

(A) Operation Maitri

(B) Operation Vijay

(D) Operation Rakshak

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Operation Ganga was the mission undertaken by India to evacuate its citizens from war-hit Ukraine. On February 26, 2022, India successfully evacuated 219 people, with the flight departing from Romania due to the closure of Ukrainian airspace for civil aircraft. This marked the first batch of evacuees, with subsequent batches expected to follow, landing in Delhi.

So, the answer is (C) Operation Ganga

Additional Information:

Ukraine:

Capital: Kyiv
Currency: Ukrainian Hryvnia

This operation reflects India’s commitment to ensuring the safety of its nationals in crisis situations.

146. Recently China has claimed rights over territories around the Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary’ claiming it as a ‘disputed region’. This Wildlife Sanctuary is located in

(A) Bhutan

(B) Nepal

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary is located in (A) Bhutan.

Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in eastern Bhutan. Established in 2003, it covers approximately 650 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity and unique ecosystem. The sanctuary is home to various flora and fauna, including several endangered species, such as the black-necked crane and the snow leopard.

Key Features:

Biodiversity: The sanctuary hosts diverse wildlife, including various mammals, birds, and plants, making it a critical conservation area.
Cultural Significance: The region is also significant for its cultural heritage, with local communities practicing traditional lifestyles and customs.
Ecotourism: Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary attracts ecotourism, offering opportunities for trekking and wildlife observation.

The sanctuary plays an essential role in the conservation of Bhutan’s natural resources and the promotion of sustainable tourism

147. Which Indian State/UT has been chosen to host the G20 Summit in 2023?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(D) Goa

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Indian State chosen to host the G20 Summit in 2023 is (B) Jammu and Kashmir.
Under the Presidency of India, the theme of G-20 in 2023 was ‘One Planet, One Family, One Future’.

148. With reference to the UN peacekeeping operations, consider the following statements:

1. UN peacekeepers can use force only for their self-defence.

2. Peacekeeping operations can only be withdrawn by a resolution by the UN Security Council.

3. USA is the largest budget contributor to the UN peacekeeping operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 2 and 3 only

(B) 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Statement 1: This is generally correct. UN peacekeepers are primarily tasked with maintaining peace and security, and their use of force is restricted to self-defense or in defense of their mandate. However, there may be exceptions where the mandate specifically authorizes the use of force for other purposes.
Statement 2: This is absolutely correct. The UN Security Council has the sole authority to deploy, continue, or withdraw peacekeeping operations. This is a crucial aspect of the UN’s peacekeeping framework.
Statement 3: This is incorrect. While the United States is a major contributor to the UN budget, it is not the largest contributor to UN peacekeeping operations. The top contributors to peacekeeping operations are typically assessed contributions from member states based on a formula determined by the General Assembly.

Therefore, the correct answer is indeed option A, which includes statements 2 and 3 only.

149. Which country has recently signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with the United Arab Emirates?

(A) Australia

(B) Italy

(D) Israel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Israel has signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with the United Arab Emirates, marking its first such agreement with an Arab country. This trade deal aims to enhance economic cooperation and boost trade between the two nations.

So, the answer is (D) Israel

A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is a legal agreement between two or more countries that reduce or eliminate trade barriers such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.

150. Which country launched its first satellite ‘Arktika-M’ to monitor the climate of the Arctic?

(A) China

(B) Russia

(D) Japan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Russia.

Russia launched its first satellite, Arktika-M, to monitor the climate of the Arctic region.
The satellite was launched in 2021 and has been providing valuable data on the Arctic’s changing climate.

66th BPSC PYQ Prelims Solved GS & CSAT Questions

1. The radiations used in the treatment of muscle ache are

(A) infrared

(B) microwave

(D) X-ray

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The radiation used in the treatment of muscle ache is infrared.
Infrared radiation is often used in therapies like heat therapy or infrared saunas to soothe muscles, reduce pain, and improve blood circulation.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) infrared.

Other options

Microwave: Microwaves are used to heat food, but they can also be used in medical applications like diathermy, which uses electromagnetic energy to heat tissues. However, diathermy is not typically used for muscle ache treatment.
UV: Ultraviolet radiation is harmful to human skin and can cause sunburn and skin cancer. It’s not used for therapeutic purposes, especially for muscle ache.
X-ray: X-rays are used for medical imaging to visualize bones and organs. They are not suitable for treating muscle ache, as they can damage tissues.

2. The total resistance of a circuit having two parallel resistors is 1.403 kilo-ohm. If one of the resistors is 2.0 kilo-ohm, then the other resistor will be

(A) 1.403 kilo-ohm

(B) 2.0 kilo-ohm

(D) 4.70 kilo-ohm

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Solution:

Total Resistance (R) = 1.403 kilo-ohm.

R₁ = 2.0 Kilo-ohm.
R₂=?
1 kilo-ohm = 103 ohm.
1.403 kilo-ohm = 1403 ohm.
2 kilo-ohm = 2000 ohm.

Now, for parallel combination:

1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂
On putting the values; 1/1403 = 1/2000 + 1/ R₂
1/1043 – 1/2000 = R₂
2000 – 1403 / 1403 x 2000 = 1/R₂
597/ 1403 x 2000 = 1/R₂
R₂ = 1403 x 2000 / 597 = 2806000 / 597 = 4700.16
R₂ = 4700.16 ohm
If 10³ohm = 1 kilo-ohm
then, 4700 ohm = 4.7 kilo-ohm

Therefore, R₂ = 4.7 kilo-ohm.

3. On heating, the resistance of a semiconductor

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(D) first increases and then decreases

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) decreases.

In semiconductors, heating causes an increase in the number of charge carriers (electrons and holes) available for conduction. As the temperature rises, these charge carriers gain energy and are more likely to move, which effectively lowers the resistance.
This behavior is in contrast to metals, where resistance typically increases with temperature. Thus, the resistance of a semiconductor decreases when heated.

4. Faraday constant

(A) depends on the amount of the electrolyte

(B) depends on the current passed in the electrolyte

(D) is a universal constant

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Faraday constant (approximately 96485 C/mol) represents the charge of one mole of electrons. It is a universal constant that does not depend on the amount of electrolyte, the current passed, or the volume of the solvent.
It is fundamentally linked to the relationship between charge, moles of electrons, and chemical reactions in electrochemistry.

So, the correct answer is (D) is a universal constant.

5. Light-year’ is a unit of

(A) time

(B) speed

(D) intensity of light

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

A light-year is the distance that light travels in one year in a vacuum, approximately 9.46 trillion kilometers (about 5.88 trillion miles).
It is commonly used in astronomy to express vast distances between celestial objects. It is not a unit of time, speed, or intensity of light.

So, the correct answer is (C) distance

6. Which of the following does not change when light travels from one medium to another?

(A) Velocity Wavelength

(D) Refractive index

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

When light travels from one medium to another, its velocity and wavelength change, but its frequency remains constant.
The frequency of light is determined by the source and does not change as light moves between different media. The refractive index is also medium-dependent, thus changes with the medium.

So, the correct answer is (C) Frequency

7. The velocity of electromagnetic waves is

(A) 3×10⁸ ms^-1

(B) 3×10⁷ ms^-1

(D) 3×10⁵ ms^-1

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is approximately 3×10⁸ meters per second (m/s).
This is the speed of light, which is the fastest speed at which information or matter can travel in the universe.

So, the correct answer is (A) 3×10⁸ ms^-1

8. The first man who placed his foot on the moon is

(A) Leonov

(B) Neil Armstrong

(D) James Van Allen

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Neil Armstrong was the first person to set foot on the Moon during the Apollo 11 mission on July 20, 1969. He famously declared, “That’s one small step for [a] man, one giant leap for mankind.”
Alexei Leonov was the first person to conduct a spacewalk, Michael Collins was part of the Apollo 11 mission but did not land on the Moon, and James Van Allen was known for his work in space science but was not an astronaut.

So, the correct answer is (B) Neil Armstrong

9. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of plutonium nuclide (₉₄Pu²⁴²) is

(A) 94

(B) 148

(D) 336

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To find the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the plutonium nuclide ₉₄Pu²⁴², use the formula:

Number of neutrons=Mass number−Atomic number

Here, the mass number (A) is 242 and the atomic number (Z) is 94.

Number of neutrons=242−94=148

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 148.

10. The highest viscosity among the following is of

(A) water

(B) air

(D) honey

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Viscosity is a measure of a fluid’s resistance to flow.
Among the options given, honey has the highest viscosity. Water has low viscosity, air is a gas with even lower viscosity, and while blood is more viscous than water, it is less viscous than honey.

Therefore, honey is the most viscous of the listed substances.

11. Milk is a poor source of

(A) calcium

(B) protein

(E) vitamin C

(D) carbohydrate

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Milk contains several important vitamins, including:

Vitamin A: Essential for vision, immune function, and skin health.
Vitamin D: Important for calcium absorption and bone health; often fortified in milk.
Vitamin B12: Crucial for red blood cell formation and neurological function.
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2): Plays a role in energy production and skin health.
Niacin (Vitamin B3): Important for metabolism and DNA repair.

While milk is a good source of these vitamins, it is not a significant source of vitamin C.

12. The breath test conducted by police to check drunken driver has which one of the followiring on the filter paper?

(A) Potassium dichromate-sulfuric acid

(B) Potassium permanganate- sulfuric acid

(D) Turmeric

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In breathalyzer tests used by police to check for alcohol intoxication, the breath sample is often passed through a solution containing potassium dichromate and sulfuric acid.
When alcohol is present, it reduces the dichromate, causing a color change that indicates the level of alcohol in the breath.

So, the correct answer is (A) Potassium dichromate-sulfuric acid.

13. Glucose is converted to ethyl alcohol by the enzyme

(A) maltase

(B) invertase

(D) diastase

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Zymase is a complex of enzymes found in yeast that facilitates the conversion of glucose to ethanol (ethyl alcohol) through the process of fermentation.
Maltase and diastase are involved in breaking down starches into sugars, while invertase is responsible for converting sucrose into glucose and fructose, but it does not convert glucose to alcohol.

So, the correct answer is (C) zymase.

14. Limewater is turned milky by

(A) CO

(B) CO₂

(D) O₃

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Limewater, which is a solution of calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂), turns milky when carbon dioxide (CO₂) is bubbled through it.
This is because CO₂ reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium carbonate (CaCO₃), which is insoluble in water and causes the solution to become cloudy or milky.

So, the correct answer is (B) CO₂.

15. The incomplete burning of petrol and diesel produces

(A) nitric oxide

(B) nitrogen dioxide

(D) carbon monoxide

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The incomplete burning of petrol and diesel primarily produces carbon monoxide (CO), along with other pollutants. Incomplete combustion occurs when there is not enough oxygen available, leading to the formation of CO instead of carbon dioxide (CO₂).
While nitrogen oxides like nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) can also be produced during combustion, they are typically associated with high-temperature combustion processes rather than incomplete burning.

So, the correct answer is (D) carbon monoxide.

16. The pH of a solution changes from 3 to 6. The H⁺ ion concentration will

(A) increase 3 times

(B) decrease 3 times

(D) decrease 1000 times

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The pH scale is logarithmic, meaning each whole number change on the scale represents a tenfold change in H⁺ ion concentration.

When the pH changes from 3 to 6:

From pH 3 to pH 4: H⁺ concentration decreases by a factor of 10.
From pH 4 to pH 5: H⁺ concentration decreases by another factor of 10.
From pH 5 to pH 6: H⁺ concentration decreases by another factor of 10.

Thus, the total change in H⁺ concentration is:10×10×10=1000

Therefore, the H⁺ ion concentration (D) decreases 1000 times.

17. A mixture of sand and naphthalene can be separated by

(A) sublimation

(B) distillation

(D) fractional distillation

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Naphthalene is a substance that can sublimate, meaning it can change from a solid to a gas without passing through a liquid state.
When a mixture of sand and naphthalene is heated, the naphthalene will sublimate, leaving the sand behind. The gaseous naphthalene can then be cooled to collect it again as a solid.
This method effectively separates the two components based on their physical properties.

The correct answer is (A) sublimation.

Other options

Distillation: A process used to separate liquids based on their boiling points. The liquid with the lower boiling point vaporizes first, is condensed, and collected separately.
Chromatography: A technique used to separate components of a mixture based on their affinity for a stationary phase and a mobile phase. Different components move through the stationary phase at different rates.
Fractional Distillation: A specialized type of distillation used to separate components in a mixture with similar boiling points. It involves multiple vaporization-condensation cycles to achieve better separation.

18. The numbers of sigma and pi bonds in benzene are

(A) 3, 3

(B) 3,6

(D) 12, 6

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Benzene is a well-known aromatic hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C₆H₆. Its structure plays a critical role in determining the types of bonds present.

Bond Types in Benzene

Sigma Bonds: These are single covalent bonds formed by the direct overlap of atomic orbitals.
Pi Bonds: These are formed by the sideways overlap of p orbitals, which occurs in double or triple bonds, but in benzene, they are part of a delocalized electron system.

Counting Bonds in Benzene

1. Sigma Bonds:

Benzene has 6 carbon atoms and each carbon atom is bonded to one hydrogen atom.
Each C-C bond and C-H bond is a sigma bond.
There are 6 C-C sigma bonds and 6 C-H sigma bonds.
Therefore, the total number of sigma bonds in benzene is 6 (C-C) + 6 (C-H) = 12 sigma bonds.

2. Pi Bonds:

Benzene has a unique resonance structure where the electrons are delocalized.
Although benzene has three double bonds in its resonance forms, these do not count as separate pi bonds in the traditional sense.
Instead, benzene exhibits 1.5 pi bonds per double bond due to the resonance.
For simplicity, we can count this as 3 pi bonds overall.

Thus, in benzene, there are a total of 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds. The correct answer to the question is (C) 12, 3.

19. The elements present in urea are

(A) C, H, O

(B) C, N, O

(D) C, H, N, O

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Urea has the chemical formula

NH₂CONH₂, which contains:

Carbon (C)
Hydrogen (H)
Nitrogen (N)
Oxygen (O)

Thus, urea contains all four elements: carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen.

So, the correct answer is (D) C, H, N, O.

20. The poorest conductor of heat among the following is

(A) copper

(B) lead

(D) zinc

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Among the metals listed, lead is generally considered the poorest conductor of heat. While copper, mercury, and zinc are good conductors of heat, lead has a lower thermal conductivity compared to the others. Therefore, it is less effective at conducting heat.

So, the correct answer is (B) lead.

[But the commission has accepted option (C) mercury]

21. The vitamin which is effective in blood clotting is

(A) vitamin A

(B) vitamin B

(D) vitamin K

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting (coagulation). It is essential for the synthesis of certain proteins that are necessary for blood to clot properly.
Deficiency in vitamin K can lead to excessive bleeding and other related issues.

So, the correct answer is (D) vitamin K.

Other options

Vitamin A: Essential for vision, skin health, and immune function. Found in carrots, sweet potatoes, spinach, and liver. Deficiency can lead to night blindness and dry skin.
Vitamin B: A group of water-soluble vitamins crucial for energy production, brain function, and cell health. Found in whole grains, meat, poultry, and leafy greens. Deficiency can cause fatigue, anemia, and neurological problems.
Vitamin D: Helps absorb calcium and phosphorus for strong bones and teeth. Produced by the skin when exposed to sunlight or obtained from fatty fish and fortified dairy products. Deficiency can lead to osteoporosis and weakened bones.

22. The female sex hormone is

(A) estrogen

(B) androgen

(D) oxytocin

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Estrogen is the primary female sex hormone, responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics.

So, the correct answer is (A) estrogen.

While,

Androgen: A group of male sex hormones that promote the development and maintenance of male characteristics like facial hair, muscle mass, and a deep voice. Testosterone is the primary androgen.
Insulin: A hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood sugar levels. It helps glucose enter cells for energy. Diabetes mellitus occurs when the body doesn’t produce enough insulin or doesn’t use it effectively.
Oxytocin: Often referred to as the “love hormone,” it plays a role in bonding, trust, and childbirth. It is released during childbirth, breastfeeding, and physical touch.

23. The Nobel Prize for developing treatment of Parkinson’s disease was given to

(A) Arvid Carlsson

(B) John F. Enders

(D) Walter Kohn

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Arvid Carlsson was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 2000 for his discoveries concerning dopamine as a neurotransmitter, which laid the foundation for developing treatments for Parkinson’s disease.
His research significantly advanced the understanding of how dopamine affects movement and how its deficiency is linked to Parkinson’s disease.

So, the correct answer is (A) Arvid Carlsson.

About Parkinson’s disease

Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons.
Symptoms include tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
There is currently no cure, but treatments can help manage symptoms.

24. The malfunctioning of thyroid gland is due to the deficiency of

(A) vitamin A

(B) calcium

(D) iron

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The thyroid gland requires iodine to produce thyroid hormones, which are essential for regulating metabolism and growth. A deficiency in iodine can lead to thyroid problems, such as goiter and hypothyroidism.
Therefore, malfunctioning of the thyroid gland is primarily linked to insufficient iodine levels.

So, the correct answer is (C) iodine.

25. The sensitive area of the human tongue to bitterness is

(A) tip

(B) middle part

(D) edge

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The sensitivity to bitterness is primarily located in the posterior part of the tongue. This region contains more taste buds that are responsive to bitter compounds, which is thought to be an evolutionary adaptation to detect potentially harmful substances.

The correct answer is (C) posterior part.

The tongue does have some regional differences in taste sensitivity, but it’s not divided into specific zones for each taste:

Sweet: The front of the tongue is most sensitive to sweet tastes.
Salty: The front edge of the tongue is most sensitive to salty tastes.
Sour: The sides of the tongue toward the back are most sensitive to sour tastes.
Bitter: The back of the tongue is most sensitive to bitter tastes.

However, all parts of the tongue can sense all five basic tastes, and the differences in sensitivity are small enough that they don’t play a clear role in taste perception.

Other factors that affect taste include:

Hunger: Hunger increases sensitivity to sweet, sour, and salty tastes.
Satiation: Satiation increases sensitivity to bitter tastes.
Upper respiratory infections and allergies: These decrease sensitivity to taste.

26. Ginger is a stem and not root because

(A) it stores food material

(B) it has nodes and internodes

(D) it lacks chlorophyll

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Ginger is classified as a stem because it has distinct nodes and internodes, which are characteristic features of stems.
While ginger does store food, which is typical for both roots and stems, the defining feature that classifies it as a stem is its structural characteristics.
Ginger grows horizontally, and although it lacks chlorophyll, these factors alone do not determine whether it is a stem or root.

So, the correct answer is (B) it has nodes and internodes.

27. The sweetest sugar among the following is

(A) fructose

(B) glucose

(D) sucrose

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Fructose is the sweetest naturally occurring sugar among the options listed. It is sweeter than glucose, maltose, and sucrose. This high sweetness level is why fructose is often used as a sweetener in various food products.

So, the correct answer is (A) fructose.

28. Among the following, which is not a true fruit?

(A) Apple

(B) Grape

(D) Plum

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The answer is (A) Apple.
While all the other options (grape, date, and plum) are true fruits, formed entirely from the ripened ovary of a flower, an apple is considered a false fruit.
This is because the edible part of an apple is primarily formed from the swollen ovary receptacle, rather than just the ovary itself.
The seeds of an apple, which are the true fruit, are located inside the core.

29. Legumes are highly nutritious because they are rich in

(A) fat

(B) protein

(D) starch

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Legumes, such as beans, lentils, and peas, are highly nutritious primarily because they are rich in protein.
They provide a significant amount of plant-based protein, making them an excellent dietary choice for vegetarians and vegans.
While legumes may contain some fat and carbohydrates (including starch), their standout nutritional feature is their high protein content.

The correct answer is (B) protein.

30. Clove, a spice, is obtained from which part of the plant?

(A) Fruit

(B) Stem

(D) Flower bud

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Clove is a spice that is obtained from the dried flower buds of the clove tree (Syzygium aromaticum). These buds are harvested and then dried to produce the aromatic spice known as cloves.

So, the correct answer is (D) Flower bud.

31. Who has been appointed by the Board of Control for Cricket in India as the Head of All India Women’s Selection Committee?

(A) Mithu Mukherjee

(B) Neetu David

(D) V. Kalpana

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Neetu David has been appointed as the Head of the All India Women’s Selection Committee by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
She is a former Indian cricketer and has played a significant role in women’s cricket in India.

The correct answer is (B) Neetu David.

32. Who has won the Women’s Singles US Open Tennis Tournament, 2020?

(A) Naomi Osaka

(B) Bianca Andreescu

(D) K. Pliskova

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Naomi Osaka won the Women’s Singles title at the US Open Tennis Tournament in 2020. She defeated Victoria Azarenka in the final to claim her second US Open title.

So, the correct answer is (A) Naomi Osaka.

33. Which athlete scored first position in the London Marathon held on 4th October, 2020?

(A) Eliud Kipchoge

(B) Shura Kitata

(D) Sisay Lemma

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Shura Kitata won the London Marathon held on October 4, 2020. He finished the race with a time of 2:05:41, securing his first victory in a major marathon.

so, the correct answer is (B) Shura Kitata.

34. Which Indian cricketer along with M. S. Dhoni announced retirement from the international cricket on 15th August, 2020?

(A) Suresh Raina

(B) Harbhajan Singh

(D) Rohit Sharma

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Suresh Raina announced his retirement from international cricket on August 15, 2020, the same day that M. S. Dhoni also announced his retirement.

So, the correct answer is (A) Suresh Raina.

35. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the National School of Drama recently?

(A) Mahesh Bhatt

(B) Akshay Kumar

(D) Paresh Rawal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Veteran Actor Paresh Rawal has been appointed as Chairman of National School of Drama Society by President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind in sept 2020.

So, the correct answer is (D) Paresh Rawal

About NSD

The National School of Drama (NSD) is India’s premier institution for theatre training and research. It was established in 1959 by the Government of India.
NSD offers courses in acting, directing, design, and playwriting. It also organizes theatre festivals and workshops.
NSD has produced many renowned theatre artists and directors who have made significant contributions to Indian theatre.

36. Who is the Chairman of the Defence Research and Development organization?

(A) Surjeet Singh Deswal

(B) Dr. G. Satheesh Reddy

(D) Charanjit Singh Attra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

G. Satheesh Reddy is an Indian aerospace scientist who served as the thirteenth chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from 2018 to 2022.
He is also the chairman of the Governing Body of the Aeronautical Development Agency, and the Scientific Adviser to Raksha Mantri (the Minister of Defence, India).

So, the correct answer is (B) Dr. G. Satheesh Reddy

Dr. Samir V Kamat is the current Chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). He took over the role on August 26, 2022. Before becoming the Chairman, Dr. Kamat was the Director General of Naval Systems & Materials at DRDO.

37. For which discipline, Dr. Bushra Ateeq and Dr. Ritesh Agarwal have been selected for Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, 2020?

(A) Chemical Sciences

(B) Physical Sciences

(D) Mathematical Sciences

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Dr. Bushra Ateeq and Dr. Ritesh Agarwal were awarded the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize in 2020 for their contributions to Medical Sciences.

The correct answer is (C) Medical Sciences.

About Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize

The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) Prize for Science and Technology is India’s highest science award, which recognizes outstanding contributions to science and technology.
The award is named after the late Dr. (Sir) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, the founder and first Director of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

The award is given in the following disciplines:

Biological Sciences
Chemical Sciences
Earth, Atmosphere, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
Engineering Sciences
Mathematical Sciences
Medical Sciences
Physical Sciences

38. Who has been selected for the Nobel Peace Prize, 2020?

(A) European Union

(B) World Food Programme

(D) Paul R. Milgrom

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The World Food Programme (WFP) was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger and improve conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas.
So, the correct answer is (B) World Food Programme.

About the Nobel Peace Prize

The Nobel Peace Prize is one of the five original Nobel Prizes established by the will of Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite, in 1895.
It is awarded annually to individuals or organizations that have made significant contributions to the promotion of peace.
Awarding Body: It is awarded by the Norwegian Nobel Committee, appointed by the Norwegian Parliament (Storting).
First Awarded: The first Nobel Peace Prize was awarded in 1901 to Henry Dunant and Frédéric Passy.

39. Which Indian film actor has been Included in the Time Magazine’s list of hundred most influential people of 2020?

(A) Ayushmann Khurrana

(B) Shahrukh Khan

(D) Sunny Deol

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Ayushmann Khurrana was included in Time Magazine’s list of the 100 most influential people of 2020. He was recognized for his impactful performances and contributions to cinema, particularly for addressing social issues through his films.

So, the correct answer is (A) Ayushmann Khurrana.

40. How many Indian beaches have been recommended for the Blue Flag Certification recently?

(A) Six

(B) Seven

(D) Nine

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Eight Indian beaches were recommended for the Blue Flag Certification, which is an international eco-label awarded to clean and safe beaches.
This certification aims to promote sustainable development in coastal regions.

Beaches are:

Golden Beach: Located in Odisha
Shivrajpur Beach: Located in Gujarat
Kappad Beach: Located in Kerala
Ghoghla Beach: Located in Diu
Radhanagar Beach: Located in Andaman and Nicobar
Kasarkod Beach: Located in Karnataka
Padubidri Beach: Located in Karnataka
Rushikonda Beach: Located in Andhra Pradesh

So, the answer is (C) Eight

41. Ram Vilas Paswan started his political career from which political party?

(A) Janata Party

(B) Bharatiya Lok Dal

(D) Praja Socialist Party

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Ram Vilas Paswan started his political career with the Samyukta Socialist Party (SSP) in the late 1960s.
He later went on to become a prominent political leader and founded his own party, the Lok Janshakti Party (LJP).

The correct answer is (C) Samyukta Socialist Party.

42. When did the Election Commission of India issue a Press Note for the General Election to the Legislative Assembly of Bihar, 2020?

(A) 23rd September, 2020

(B) 24th September, 2020

(D) 26th September, 2020

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Election Commission of India issued a press note regarding the General Election to the Legislative Assembly of Bihar on September 25, 2020.

The correct answer is (C) 25th September, 2020.

About the Election Commission of India

Election Commission of India is a permanent constitutional body.
The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January, 1950.
Originally, the Commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. From 1st October, 1993, the Election Commission is a three- member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
It oversees elections for the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Assemblies.
The ECI manages voter registration, enforces a code of conduct for political parties, and utilizes technology like electronic voting machines to ensure transparency.
Its role is crucial in upholding India’s democratic process.

43. In which State ‘Ghar Tak Fiber’ Scheme has been launched on 21st September, 2020 through a video conference?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Karnataka

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Ghar Tak Fiber scheme is a project that provides optical fiber internet connectivity to villages in Bihar. The scheme aims to boost the digital infrastructure of villages and enable e-education, e-health, telemedicine, and e-agriculture.
It aimed to connect all 45,945 villages in Bihar with high-speed optical fibre internet by March 31, 2021.

So, the correct answer is (C) Bihar

44. Bihar politician Late Raghuvansh Prasad Singh was for the first time elected to which Lok Sabha?

(A) Tenth Lok Sabha

(B) Eleventh Lok Sabha

(D) Thirteenth Lok Sabha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Late Raghuvansh Prasad Singh was first elected to the Eleventh Lok Sabha in 1996, representing the Vaishali constituency in Bihar.
He was a prominent politician and a member of the Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD).

So, the correct answer is (B) Eleventh Lok Sabha.

45. Which among the following is not a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue-an informal strategic forum?

(A) India

(B) Japan

(D) Australia

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, also known as the Quad, is a strategic security dialogue between Australia, India, Japan, and the United States.
It’s a forum for discussing regional security issues and strengthening cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
China is not a member of this informal strategic forum.

So, the correct answer is (C) China.

Key Points about the Quad:

Formation: The Quad was initially proposed in 2007 by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe.
Purpose: The primary goal is to maintain a free, open, inclusive, and rules-based Indo-Pacific region.
Focus: The Quad focuses on a range of issues, including maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, cyber security, and counter-terrorism.
Significance: The Quad is seen as a counterbalance to China’s growing influence in the region.
Cooperation: The four countries have been increasing their cooperation through joint military exercises, diplomatic dialogues, and economic initiatives.

46. Who represented India’s perspective in the Fifth BRICS Culture Ministers’ Meeting held through a video conference in September 2020?

(A) Prahlad Singh Patel

(B) Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank

(D) Ravi Shankar Prasad

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Prahlad Singh Patel, the Minister of State for Culture and Tourism, represented India’s perspective in the Fifth BRICS Culture Ministers’ Meeting held via video conference in September 2020.

So, the correct answer is (A) Prahlad Singh Patel.

About BRICS:

BRICS is an acronym for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, and is an intergovernmental organization that aims to deepen economic cooperation between its member countries. The group is considered a geopolitical rival to the G7 bloc of advanced economies.
Origin: The term BRIC was coined in 2001 by economist Jim O’Neill, who believed that these economies would dominate global growth by 2050. The acronym was adopted in 2011 after South Africa joined.
Membership: Iran, Egypt, Ethiopia, and the United Arab Emirates joined BRICS on January 1, 2024.
Goals: BRICS seeks to deepen economic cooperation between its members and stand in contrast to the Western sphere of power. The group has repeatedly discussed finding an alternate international currency to the U.S. dollar.
Structure: BRICS has no charter, fixed secretariat, or funds, and is sustained by the political will of its members.

47. Where was the 36th ASEAN Summit virtually held in June 2020?

(A) Thailand

(B) Singapore

(D) Vietnam

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The 36th ASEAN Summit was held virtually on June 26, 2020, and it was hosted by Vietnam, which was the chair of ASEAN that year.

So, the correct answer is (D) Vietnam.

About ASEAN:

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is an international organization that promotes political, economic, and social cooperation in Southeast Asia. ASEAN was established on August 8, 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
ASEAN’s secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia.
Australia became ASEAN’s first Dialogue Partner in 1974 and a Comprehensive Strategic Partner in 2021.
ASEAN agreed in 2022 to admit Timor-Leste as its 11th member, and granted observer status to Timor-Leste to attend ASEAN meetings.

The organization’s current 10 member countries are:

Brunei
Cambodia
Indonesia
Laos
Malaysia
Myanmar
the Philippines
Singapore
Thailand
Vietnam

48. Which of the following has topped in the Human Capital Index, 2020?

(A) Japan

(B) South Korea

(D) Hong Kong

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In the Human Capital Index 2020, Singapore topped the rankings. The index, published by the World Bank, assesses the knowledge, skills, and health of people in different countries, reflecting their potential for economic productivity.

So, the correct answer is (C) Singapore.

49. Recently in USA, Operation MAGA’ is related to

(A) campaign against COVID-19

(B) Donald campaign Trump’s re-election

(D) ‘make army great again campaign ‘

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Operation MAGA refers to Donald Trump’s re-election campaign strategy, which stands for “Make America Great Again.

So, the correct answer is (B) Donald campaign Trump’s re-election

50. Which Arab state has started first nuclear power plant?

(A) Iraq

(B) Saudi Arabia

(D) Egypt

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has started the first nuclear power plant in the Arab world. The Barakah Nuclear Power Plant, located in Abu Dhabi, began commercial operations in August 2020.

So, the correct answer is (C) United Arab Emirates.

51. Which was the first Arab state to sign peace deal with Israel?

(A) Egypt

(B) Jordan

(D) Sudan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Egypt was the first Arab state to sign a peace deal with Israel, doing so in 1979 with the Camp David Accords, which were brokered by the United States. This agreement formally recognized Israel and established diplomatic relations between the two countries.

So, the correct answer is (A) Egypt.

52. Which country assumed the role of Chairman of the International Labour Organization’s Governing Body for the period of October 2020 till June 2021?

(A) Japan

(B) New Zealand

(D) India

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

India assumed the role of Chairman of the International Labour Organization’s (ILO) Governing Body for the period from October 2020 until June 2021. This marked a significant leadership role for India within the organization.

The correct answer is (D) India.

About International Labour Organization’s

The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a United Nations agency that promotes social justice and human and labor rights.
It was established in 1919 as part of the Treaty of Versailles, and became a specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
The ILO’s work is based on the principle of tripartism, which gives equal representation to governments, employers, and workers.

53. ‘Operation My Saheli’ launched in September 2020 aims

(A) to encourage self-defence education among girls

(B) to boost the security of women passengers in trains

(D) to boost awareness against girl child labour

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

‘Operation My Saheli’ was launched by Indian Railways to enhance the security of women passengers traveling on trains.
The initiative involves training staff to ensure the safety and well-being of women travelers.

So, the correct answer is (B) to boost the security of women passengers in trains.

54. On the occasion of the first anniversary of the Fit India Movement, who gave the Mantra, Fitness Ki Dose, Aadha Ghanta Roz (Fitness Dose, Half an Hour Daily)?

(A) Prime Minister Narendra Modi

(B) Union Home Minister Amit Shah

(C)Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan

(D) Yoga Guru Baba Ramdev

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

On the occasion of the first anniversary of the Fit India Movement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi gave the mantra “Fitness Ki Dose, Aadha Ghanta Roz” (Fitness Dose, Half an Hour Daily) to encourage people to incorporate fitness into their daily routines.

So, the correct answer is (A) Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

The Fit India Movement is a nationwide campaign launched by the Prime Minister of India on August 29, 2019 to make fitness an integral part of people’s daily lives.

55. On the one hundred birth anniversary of Rajmata Vijaya Raje Scindia, Prime Minister Narendra Modi released a

(A) fifty rupees coin

(B) fifty rupees note

(D) one hundred rupees note

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi released a one hundred rupees commemorative coin to celebrate the Birth Centenary of Rajmata Vijaya Raje Scindia. The coin was released through video conference.

So, the correct answer is: (C) one hundred rupees coin.

56. Which State’s short documentary film, Chi Lupo has won Dada Saheb Phalke Award, 2020?

(A) Manipur

(B) Nagaland

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The short documentary film, Chi Lupo, which won the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 2020, was produced by Arunachal Pradesh.
The film showcases the traditional honey hunting practices of the Shertukpen community in Arunachal Pradesh.

So, the correct answer is: (D) Arunachal Pradesh.

57. Which private sector bank has launched ‘e-Kisaan Dhan’ app for farmers?

(A) Axis Bank

(B) HDFC Bank

(D) Kotak Mahindra Bank

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

HDFC Bank launched the ‘e-Kisaan Dhan’ app for farmers across India. This app provides a range of agricultural and banking services to farmers, including mandi prices, weather forecasts, farming news, information on seed varieties, and more.

So, the correct answer is: (B) HDFC Bank.

58. At the international airport of which city, India launched its first COVID-19 testing facility?

(A) Kolkata

(B) Delhi

(D) Bengaluru

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

India launched its first COVID-19 testing facility at the international airport in Delhi.
This facility was set up to provide convenient testing for arriving international passengers and help prevent the spread of the virus.

So, the correct answer is (B) Delhi.

59. Rafale fighter aircraft has been formally inducted into the Indian Air Force at which Air Force Station?

(A) Hindon

(B) Sarsawa

(C)Ambala

(D) Amritsar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Rafale fighter aircraft was formally inducted into the Indian Air Force at Air Force Station Ambala. This significant milestone marked the beginning of a new era for India’s air power.

The correct answer is (C) Ambala.

France completed the delivery of all 36 Rafale jets to the Indian Air Force (IAF) in December 2022. India had ordered the combat aircraft from France in a Rs 59,000-crore government-to-government deal in September 2016. For its navy, India selected the Rafale M over the American-made Boeing F/A-18 Super Hornet.

About Rafale fighter aircraft

The Dassault Rafale is a French twin-engine, multirole fighter aircraft that can perform a variety of missions, including air superiority, air defense, reconnaissance, and nuclear deterrence.
Design: The Rafale was designed to replace seven different types of aircraft used by the French Air & Space Force and the French Navy. It’s built by Dassault Aviation and 400 French partner companies.
Capabilities: The Rafale can carry up to 1.5 times its own weight in fuel and weaponry. It has a top speed of Mach 1.8, a range of 3,701 km, and a combat radius of 1,851 km.
Sensors: The Rafale’s SPECTRA Electronic Warfare suite includes sensors that provide threat warning against hostile radars, missiles, and lasers.

60. The name of India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile is

(A) Tandav

(B) Trinetra

(D) Rudram

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Rudram is India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile, developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
It is designed to target enemy radar systems and other electronic warfare systems.

So, the correct answer is (D) Rudram.

61. In which of the following Harappan cities, furrows of ploughed fields have been found?

(A) Kalibangan

(B) Dholavira

(D) Lothal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In Kalibangan, evidence of furrows of ploughed fields has been found, indicating advanced agricultural practices during the Harappan period.
This discovery highlights the agricultural development of the Indus Valley Civilization.

So, the correct answer is (A) Kalibangan.

Kalibangan is an archaeological site in Rajasthan, India.

62. Triratna or Three Jewels, i.e., right knowledge, right faith and right action are related to which of the following?

(A) Buddhism

(B) Hinduism

(D) Christianity

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In Jainism, Triratna, or the Three Jewels, refers to right knowledge, right faith, and right action. These principles are fundamental to achieving liberation and spiritual enlightenment in Jain philosophy.

The correct answer is (C) Jainism.

While,

The Tripitaka, also known as the Pali Canon, is the traditional scripture of Buddhism. It consists of three “baskets” (pitaka) of teachings.

63. Which of the following rulers convened the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir?

(A) Ashoka

(B) Ajatashatru

(D) Kalashoka

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Fourth Buddhist Council was convened by King Kanishka in Kashmir during the 2nd century CE. This council played a significant role in the development of Mahayana Buddhism and the compilation of Buddhist texts.

So, the correct answer is (C) Kanishka.

About Buddhist Council

Buddhist Councils were a series of meetings held in ancient India by Buddhist scholars and monks to discuss and resolve disputes over the interpretation and implementation of Buddhist teachings. These councils also aimed to preserve and spread Buddhist scriptures.

Some important Buddhist Councils include:

First Council (483 B.C.): Held in Rajgriha under King Ajatashatru, it aimed to preserve the Buddha’s teachings (Sutta) and monastic rules (Vinaya), led by Monk Mahakasyapa.
Second Council (383 B.C.): Convened at Vaishali under Kalasoka, it addressed disputes among sects and rejected certain texts, establishing key doctrinal boundaries.
Third Council (250 B.C.): Conducted in Pataliputra under Emperor Ashoka, it focused on purifying Buddhist teachings and spreading Buddhism beyond India.
Fourth Council (72 A.D.): Convened in Kashmir under Emperor Kanishka, it reconciled conflicts between Hinayana and Mahayana sects.
Fifth Council (1871): Held in Mandalay, Myanmar, it meticulously recited Buddhist texts, though it lacked broad international recognition.
Sixth Council (1954): Also in Myanmar, it aimed to preserve the authentic Dhamma and Vinaya, with a significant emphasis on continuity and tradition.

64. Which of the following philosophies of India propounded the atom theory?

(A) Yoga

(B) Nyaya

(D) Vaisheshika

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Vaisheshika school of Indian philosophy, founded by Kanada, is known for its atomistic theory.
It posits that everything in the universe is composed of indivisible particles or atoms (anu), which combine to form various substances.

So, the correct answer is (D) Vaisheshika.

65. Which Delhi Sultan is known for adopting the ‘blood and iron’ policy?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(D) Muhammad bin Tughluq

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Sultan Balban is known for adopting the ‘blood and iron’ policy, emphasizing strict military control and authoritarian rule to consolidate power and suppress any opposition during his reign in the Delhi Sultanate.

So, the correct answer is (B) Balban.

About Balban

Ghiyas-ud-din Balban (1216-1287) was a Sultan of Delhi during the Slave Dynasty.
Reign: Balban ruled from 1266 to 1287 AD.
Known for: Balban was known for his authoritarian rule, patronage of art and culture, and policy of “blood and iron”.

Balban’s achievements include:

Centralized power: Balban implemented administrative reforms to strengthen the central authority and reduce the influence of the nobility.
Military: Balban established a strong centralized army and separated military affairs from the finance department.
Kingship: Balban was the first Muslim ruler to formulate a “theory of kingship” similar to the “theory of the divine right of the kings”.
Art and culture: Balban encouraged the development of Sufism, literature, and other art forms.
Tomb: The Tomb of Balban was the first true arch and dome built in India.

66. Which medieval Indian empire was famous for elaborated local self-government?

(A) Chalukya

(B) Chola

(D) Parmar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Chola Empire is renowned for its elaborate system of local self-government.
It implemented a well-organized administrative structure, with local councils (known as “sabhas”) that allowed significant autonomy in managing local affairs, promoting democracy at the village level.

So, the correct answer is (B) Chola.

67. Pietra dura is related to which of the following?

(A) Decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones

(B) Building sloping walls in Minars

(D) Use of marble in buildings

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Pietra dura is a decorative art that involves inlaying semi-precious stones into a marble background to create intricate floral and geometric designs, commonly seen in Mughal architecture.

So, the correct answer is (A) Decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones.

68. Which Mughal ruler established Karkhanas for painting?

(A) Humayun

(B) Akbar

(D) Shah Jahan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Mughal Emperor Akbar established Karkhanas (workshops) for painting, which played a crucial role in the development of Mughal art.
He encouraged the collaboration of various artists, leading to the flourishing of miniature paintings during his reign.

So, the correct answer is (B) Akbar.

69. The dual system of governance in Bengal was enforced by

(A) Warren Hastings

(B) William Bentinck

(D) Lord Curzon

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Dual System of Government in Bengal was a system of administration that divided the governance of Bengal into two parts, the Diwani and the Nizamat, and was in place from 1765 to 1772.
Diwani: The East India Company was given the right to collect revenue from Bengal.
Nizam: The Nawab of Bengal was given administrative authority.
The Dual System of Government was introduced by Robert Clive, the first governor of Bengal, in 1765. The system was abolished by Warren Hastings in 1772, bringing Bengal under direct British control.

The correct answer is (C) Robert Clive.

70. Who among the following participates in the Parliament of Religions held at Chicago in 1893?

(A) Dayananda Saraswati

(B) Swami Vivekananda

(D) Raja Rammohan Roy

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Swami Vivekananda represented Hinduism at the Parliament of Religions held in Chicago on 11^th sept, 1893.
His speeches emphasized the universality of religions and garnered significant attention, making him a prominent figure in introducing Indian philosophies to the Western world.

So, the correct answer is (B) Swami Vivekananda.

71. Who established Swaraj Party in 1923?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Vallabhbhai Patel

(D) B. R. Ambedkar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru established the Swaraj Party in 1923. The party aimed to enter the legislatures and promote self-governance (Swaraj) within the framework of British rule, advocating for constitutional reforms and greater Indian representation.

So, the correct answer is (C) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru.

72. Who wrote the famous play, Neel Darpan in which oppression of indigo farmers is displayed?

(A) Sharat Chandra Chatterjee

(B) Rabindranath Tagore

(D) Dinabandhu Mitra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Dinabandhu Mitra wrote the famous play “Neel Darpan,” which highlights the oppression of indigo farmers in Bengal during the colonial period. The play served as a significant critique of the exploitative practices of British indigo planters.

So, the correct answer is (D) Dinabandhu Mitra.

73. The famous Battle of Wandiwash in 1760 was fought by the British against whom?

(A) The French

(B) Spain

(D) Carnatic

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Battle of Wandiwash, fought in January, 1760, was a significant conflict during the Seven Years’ War, where the British forces defeated the French.

The correct answer is (A) The French.

The Battle of Wandiwash

Who fought: The British, led by Sir Eyre Coote, defeated the French, led by Thomas-Arthur, Comte de Lally.
Why it was important: The battle was part of the Third Carnatic War, which was part of the larger Seven Years’ War. The British victory at Wandiwash helped establish British supremacy in India, and contributed to the defeat of native powers.
Aftermath: The French surrendered Pondicherry on January 16, 1761, after a gallant eight-month defense by Lally. The loss of Pondicherry, Gingee, and Mahe reduced French power in India to its lowest. Lally was taken prisoner of war and returned to France, where he was imprisoned and executed in 1766.

74. Which of the following Acts introduced separate electorate system in India?

(A) The Regulating Act, 1773

(B) The Charter Act, 1833

(D) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the separate electorate system for Muslims, allowing them to elect their representatives separately from the general electorate. This was a significant step in the political landscape of India.

So, the correct answer is (D) The Indian Councils Act, 1909.

75. Kol Mutiny of 1831 under Buddho Bhagat took place in which of the following regions?

(A) Kutch

(B) Singhbhum

(D) Satara

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Kol Mutiny of 1831, led by Buddho Bhagat, took place in the Singhbhum region of present-day Jharkhand. The uprising was primarily against the oppressive practices of British rule and the exploitation of the Kol tribals.

So, the correct answer is (B) Singhbhum.

76. Who spearheaded the 1857 Revolt in Bihar?

(A) Nana Saheb

(B) Tatya Tope

(D) Maulavi Ahmadullah

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Kunwar Singh was a military leader and ruler of Jagdishpur, which is now part of the Bhojpur district of Bihar. He was born on November 13, 1777 and died on April 26, 1858.
Kunwar Singh was a leader of the revolt against the British East India Company. He was an expert in guerilla warfare and led a small group of armed soldiers against the British. He fought the British for almost a year.
Kunwar Singh’s last battle was on April 23, 1858, near Jagdishpur. He was injured in the battle, but he and his army drove away the British, brought down the Union Jack, and raised their own flag.
To honor Kunwar Singh, the Republic of India issued a commemorative stamp in 1966. The Government of Bihar established Veer Kunwar Singh University in 1992, and in 2017 it inaugurated Veer Kunwar Singh Azadi Park.

So, the correct answer is (C) Kunwar Singh.

77. Who drew Gandhiji’s attention to the plight of indigo peasants Champaran?

(A) Rajendra Prasad

(B) Anugrah Narayan Sinha

(D) Raj Kumar Shukla

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Raj Kumar Shukla, an indigo farmer, played a crucial role in drawing Gandhiji’s attention to the plight of indigo peasants in Champaran, Bihar. His efforts led to Gandhiji’s first significant involvement in Indian social reform and the subsequent Champaran Satyagraha in 1917.

So, the correct answer is (D) Raj Kumar Shukla.

78. Which was the first capital of ancient Mahajanapada Magadh?

(A) Pataliputra

(B) Vaishali

(D) Anga

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is None of the above/More than one of the above.

Key Points:

Rajagriha, now known as Rajgir, was the first capital of Magadha.
Pataliputra was established by the Magadha ruler Udayin in 490 BCE as a small fort near the Ganges River.
It later served as the capital for several significant powers in ancient India, including the Nanda, Shishunaga, Maurya, Gupta, and Pala Empires.
Pataliputra was renamed Patna by Sher Shah Suri and became one of the largest cities in the world during the Maurya period.
Magadha was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas, located in southern Bihar in ancient India.

Other facts

The kingdom of Magadha played a crucial role in the development of both Buddhism and Jainism and was the origin of the Gupta and Maurya Empires.

79. Swami Sahajananda was related to which of the following?

(A) Tribal Movement in Bihar

(B) Labour Movement in Bihar

(D) Caste Movement in Bihar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Swami Sahajananda was primarily related to the (C) Peasant Movement in Bihar.

Contributions:

Role in Peasant Movement: Swami Sahajananda was a prominent leader in the early 20th century who worked to address the grievances of farmers in Bihar. He focused on issues like land rights, fair taxation, and the exploitation faced by peasants from landlords and moneylenders.
Formation of Kisan Sabha: He was instrumental in founding the Kisan Sabha (Peasant’s Union) in 1936, which organized farmers to collectively voice their demands and fight against injustices.
Advocacy for Rights: His efforts significantly contributed to raising awareness among peasants about their rights and encouraged them to stand up against oppressive practices, leading to a more organized movement for agricultural reforms.
Impact on Social Justice: Sahajananda’s work not only highlighted the economic struggles of peasants but also aimed at social justice, addressing the broader issues of rural poverty and inequality.

Thus, his contributions are most closely associated with the peasant movement in Bihar.

80. Which of the following was Gandhiji’s first Satyagraha Movement in India in which he used Civil Disobedience?

(A) Champaran

(B) Kheda

(D) Rowlatt Satyagraha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Gandhiji’s first Satyagraha movement in India where he employed civil disobedience was the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Champaran.

About the Champaran Satyagraha

Background: Gandhi was persuaded by Rajkumar Shukla, an indigo cultivator, to visit Champaran to investigate the conditions of the farmers. The farmers were suffering under heavy taxes and an exploitative system.
Impact: The Champaran Satyagraha is considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It gave direction to India’s youth and freedom struggle.
Results: The Government accepted almost all of the Inquiry Committee’s recommendations and passed the Champaran Agrarian Act in 1918. This abolished the tinkathia system, which had been in place for about a century.

81. The largest island of Japan in terms of the geographical area is

(A) Hokkaido

(B) Honshu

(D) Kyushu

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Honshu is the largest island in Japan by geographical area, with a total area of 227,960 square kilometers. It’s the seventh largest island in the world and slightly larger than Great Britain.

Island	Area (km2)
Honshu	227,960
Hokkaido	83,424.31
Kyushu	36,782
Shikoku	18,800

So, the correct answer is (B) Honshu

82. Greenland is a part of which one of the following countries?

(A) Denmark

(B) Finland

(D) United Kingdom

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Greenland is part of the Kingdom of Denmark, and has been politically and culturally associated with Denmark for a thousand years.
It is an autonomous territory with a local government that handles most domestic affairs.
Greenland is the world’s largest island, located in the North Atlantic Ocean. It’s known for its glaciers and tundra. In the Greenlandic language, Kalaallisut, Greenland is called Kalaallit Nunaat.

So, the correct answer is (A) Denmark

83. Which one of the following countries of the world has the largest Indian population as on December 2018?

(A) United Arab Emirates

(B) Malaysia

(D) United States of America

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The United Arab Emirates had the largest Indian population in the world as of December 2018.
Over 3,420,000 Indians live in the United Arab Emirates, which is more than 27% of the country’s total population. Indian migration to the United Arab Emirates increased significantly in the 1970s and 1980s.

So, the correct answer is (A) United Arab Emirates

[But the commission has accepted option (D) United States of America]

84. Among the following countries, which country has recorded the highest annual gold output (in tonnes) in 2019?

(A) Russia

(B) Australia

(D) United States of America

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In 2019, China was indeed the largest producer of gold, with an output of around 404 tonnes, accounting for about 11% of global production.
Russia and Australia were also significant producers, but China’s production topped the list that year.

So, the correct answer is (C) China

85. Among the following continents, which one has the highest number of countries?

(A) Europe

(B) Asia

(D) North America

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The continent with the highest number of countries is (C) Africa. Africa has 54 recognized countries, which is more than any other continent.

So, the answer is (C) Africa

The number of recognized countries in each of those continents:

Europe: 44 countries
Asia: 49 countries (varies slightly depending on definitions)
North America: 23 countries

86. The State of India with the highest percentage of tribal population to its total population as per the 2011 Census is

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Nagaland

(D) Meghalaya

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Mizoram has the highest percentage of tribal population to its total population as per the 2011 Census.
Nearly 94.4% of Mizoram’s population belongs to various tribal groups, making it the state with the largest tribal population ratio in India.

So, the correct answer is (C) Mizoram.

87. Which one of the following coffee- growing areas is not in Karnataka?

(A) Chikmagalur

(B) Coorg

(D) Pulneys

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Pulneys is not a coffee-growing area in Karnataka. It is located in Tamil Nadu.
The other options, Chikmagalur, Coorg, and Baba Budangin, are all renowned coffee-producing regions in Karnataka.

So, the correct answer is (D) Pulneys

88. Which one of the following districts of India is the largest in terms of geographical area?

(A) Leh

(B) Kutch

(D) Barmer

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Kutch, located in Gujarat, is the largest district in India in terms of geographical area with 45,674 sq km. It is known for its vast salt marshes, unique culture, and diverse wildlife.
The second-largest district in India is Leh which is located in the state of Ladakh. The total area of Leh is 45,110 sq. km.

So, the correct answer is (B) Kutch

89. The State of India with maximum number of wildlife sanctuaries is

(A) Karnataka

(B) Tamil Nadu

(D) Madhya Pradesh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In this following options Maharashtra has maximum number of wildlife sanctuaries. It has the most wildlife sanctuaries in India, with 49 sanctuaries.

While,

Karnataka: Has 35 wildlife sanctuaries, 5 tiger reserves, and 15 conservation reserves.
Madhya Pradesh: Has 24 wildlife sanctuaries.
Tamilnadu has 31 Wildlife Sanctuaries.

So, the correct answer is (C) Maharashtra

90. Which of the following rivers flowing in Bihar is a north flowing river?

(A) Bagmati

(B) Kamla Kosi

(D) Gandak

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

All of the rivers mentioned in the options (Bagmati, Kamla Kosi, Gandak) are south-flowing rivers in Bihar. They originate in the Himalayas or the foothills of Nepal and flow southward to join the Ganges River.

So, the correct answer is (E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

Major Rivers of Bihar

Ganga

Description: The main river of Bihar, entering the state from Chausa.
Tributaries: Includes Bagmati, Kosi, Gandak, Sone, and Punpun.

Gandak

Flow: Travels southward, draining into several districts including West Champaran, Muzaffarpur, East Champaran, Gopalgunj, Siwan, Saran, and Vaishali.
Importance: Crucial for irrigation and agriculture.

Bagmati

Flow: Passes through Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, and Samastipur.
Origin: Begins in Nepal, flowing through Bihar before meeting the Ganga.

Mahananda

Tributaries: Main tributaries include Ratwa, Balason, and Kankai.
Flow: Important for the regions it traverses, though less prominent than others.

Kosi

Nickname: Known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to its history of flooding and changing course.
Impact: Significantly affects local agriculture and communities.

Kamla

Origin: Also originates from Nepal and flows through Bihar.
Tributaries: Main tributaries include Soni, Dhauri, Balan, and Trisula.

91. Atal Tunnel is across which one of the following Himalayan ranges?

(A) Zanskar

(B) Western Pir Panjal

(D) Eastern Pir Panjal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Atal Tunnel is located in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas. It’s built under the Rohtang Pass on the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal Pradesh.

So, the correct answer is (D) Eastern Pir Panjal

The Atal Tunnel is the world’s highest highway single-tube tunnel, standing at an elevation of 10,171 feet and measuring 9.02 kilometers long.
It’s a major engineering marvel that reduces the distance and travel time between Manali and Keylong.

92. India’s 13th major port is going to be set up in which State?

(A) Kerala

(B) Gujarat

(D) Tamil Nadu

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

India’s 13th major port is going to be set up in Maharashtra at Vadhavan in the Palghar district.
The Government of India approved the project proposal on June 19, 2024, with an estimated total project cost of ₹76,220 crore.

So, the correct answer is (C) Maharashtra

Some details about the Vadhavan Port

It will be an all-weather greenfield deep draft major port.
It will be an integral part of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor.
The natural draft at the port is about 20 meters.
The port will be able to house container ships with capacities of 16,000 to 25,000 TEU.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the port.

93. Which one of the following States is a leading producer of solar energy in India?

(A) Telangana

(B) Karnataka

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Karnataka is one of the leading producers of solar energy in India.
It has a solar potential of over 25 GW. It receives an average of 240-300 sunny days per year, with solar radiation of 5.4 to 6.4 kWh/m2/day.

So, the correct answer is (B) Karnataka

Other facts

As of October 31, 2023, Karnataka’s total installed solar capacity was 9.3 GW.
Karnataka has the largest number of grid-connected solar power plants in India.
The Pavagada Solar Park in Karnataka was the world’s largest solar park when it was completed in 2019, with an installed capacity of 2050 MW.

94. Among the following pairs of mineral and district, which one is correctly matched?

(A) Limestone-Kaimur

(B) Mica-Bhagalpur

(D) Lead-zinc-Gaya

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Limestone-Kaimur.

The other options are incorrect:

(B) Mica-Bhagalpur: Mica is primarily found in districts like Nawada, Jamui, and Gaya. Bhagalpur is known for its granite deposits.

(C) Quartzite-Madhubani: Quartzite is found in districts like Lakhisarai, Monghyr, and Nalanda. Madhubani is not a major producer of quartzite.

(D) Lead-zinc-Gaya: Lead-zinc is primarily found in districts like Banka and Rohtas. Gaya is not a major producer of these minerals.

Therefore, the only correctly matched pair is Limestone-Kaimur. Limestone is indeed found in the Kaimur region of Bihar.

95. Which one of the following pairs of Industry and place is not correctly matched?

(A) Oil refinery-Barauni

(B) Cement-Banjari

(D) Wagon and engineering- Bhagalpur

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Wagon and engineering-Bhagalpur.

Bhagalpur is primarily known for its silk industry, not wagon and engineering. The wagon and engineering industry is more prominent in other regions of Bihar, such as Muzaffarpur and Patna, due to the presence of Bharat Wagon and Engineering Company Limited (BWEL).

Other options are correctly matched:

(A) Oil refinery-Barauni: Barauni is indeed a major oil refinery hub in Bihar.

(B) Cement-Banjari: Banjari is known for its cement industries.

(C) Fertilizer-Bhaurahi: Bhaurahi is a significant fertilizer production site.

However, (D) Wagon and engineering-Bhagalpur is not correctly matched.

96. Piedmont Swamp Soil is found only in which one of the following districts of Bihar?

(A) Madhubani

(B) Bhagalpur

(D) Sitamarhi

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Piedmont Swamp Soil is found in the northwestern part of the West Champaran district of Bihar.
This soil is rich in organic matter, has a clay-like texture, and is high in moisture. It’s located at the base of the Himalayas and is ideal for growing rice.

So, the correct answer is (C) West Champaran

Some other types of soil found in Bihar:

Terai Soil: Found in the northern part of Bihar, near the Nepal border. It’s grey to yellow in color and is more fertile than upland terai.
Gangetic Alluvium Soil: This soil is found in the Indo-Gangetic plain region of Bihar. It’s mostly loamy and is fertile, but regular tillage without manure can lead to low organic content.

97. In which one of the following pairs of Administrative Divisions of Bihar, Ganga river does not flow?

(A) Darbhanga Munger

(B) Purnea-Bhagalpur

(D) Kosi-Magadh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Ganga river does not flow in the Kosi-Magadh administrative division of Bihar.
It flows through Bihar, creating two distinct regions north and south of the river.
Some districts on the banks of the Ganga river in Bihar include Buxar, Bhojpur, Saran, Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur, Begusarai, Munger, Khagaria, Katihar, Bhagalpur, and Lakhisarai.

So, the correct answer is (D) Kosi-Magadh

98. Among the following pairs of tribe and district, which one is not correctly matched?

(A) Santhal-Banka

(B) Munda-Jamui

(D) Kharwar-Bhagalpur

(E) None of the of the above above/More than one

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The pair that is not correctly matched is Munda-Jamui.
The Munda tribe primarily inhabits the Chhotanagpur plateau region, which includes parts of Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.

So, the answer is (B) Munda-Jamui

99. What is the percentage of all types of forest area to the total geographical area of Bihar State?

(A) 7.27

(B) 6.87

(D) 12.77

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to the Forest Survey of India, as of 2019, the total forest cover in Bihar State is approximately 7,306 square kilometers, which constitutes around 7.27% of the state’s total geographical area.

So, the correct answer is (A) 7.27%.

100. Which one of the following districts is having the only National Park of Bihar?

(A) Nalanda

(B) Bhagalpur

(D) East Champaran

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the West Champaran district of Bihar, on the India-Nepal border, and is surrounded by the Royal Chitwan National Park of Nepal.

So, the correct answer is (C) West Champaran

The Park was established in 1990. However, the area that includes the park was designated as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1978.
1953: The area was designated as a Protected Forest
1978: The area was designated as a Wildlife Sanctuary
1990: The area was designated as a National Park and became the Valmiki Tiger Reserve, India’s 18th Tiger Reserve

101. Who won the bid to construct the new Parliament building recently?

(A) L&T Limited

(B) Reliance Projects Limited

(D) The National Highways Authority of India

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Tata Projects Limited won the contract to build the new Parliament building in New Delhi in September 2020. The contract was awarded by the CPWD for ₹862 crores.

So, the correct answer is (C) Tata Projects Limited

102. Which Article in the Indian Constitution is related with the establishment of the Election Commission of India?

(A) Article 324

(B) Article 148

(D) Article 325

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution deals with the establishment, powers, and functions of the Election Commission of India. This article ensures the impartial and fair conduct of elections in the country.

So, the correct answer is (A) Article 324.

Other options

Article 148: This article deals with the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). It outlines the appointment, powers, and duties of the CAG, who is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and state governments.
Article 342: This article addresses the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It empowers the President to specify castes or tribes as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and it provides for safeguards and special provisions for their welfare and development.
Article 325: Article 325 of the Indian Constitution says that No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.

103. Who is the Head of the National Commission for Women at present?

(A) Mamta Sharma

(B) Lalitha Kumaramangalam

(D) Smriti Irani

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Rekha Sharma is the current Chairperson of the National Commission for Women (NCW).
She assumed this role in September 2017.

So, the correct answer is (C) Rekha Sharma.

104. What is meant by ‘Rule of Law?

(A) One act for all and one judiciary for all

(B) One act for all and one State for all

(D) All acts for one and one judiciary for all

(E)None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle that means everyone, including those in positions of power, is subject to the same laws and legal processes.
This ensures equality, fairness, and justice.

So, the correct answer is (A) One act for all and one judiciary for all.

105. Which Article gives the list of 29 functions to be performed by the Panchayati Raj Institutions?

(A) Article 243(H)

(B) Article 243(E)

(D) Article 243(G)

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Article 243G of the Indian Constitution outlines the powers, responsibilities, and authority of Panchayats, which are local self-government bodies. The article is part of the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
The 11th Schedule contains 29 subjects on which Panchayats can exercise powers, including agriculture, education, health, rural development, and welfare of weaker sections.

So, the correct answer is (D) Article 243(G)

Other options

Article 243(H) empowers Panchayats to impose taxes and manage their funds, promoting financial autonomy.
Article 243(E) establishes a fixed term of five years for Panchayats, ensuring regular elections.
Article 243(F) outlines disqualifications for membership, maintaining standards for elected representatives.

106. When was the Citizenship (Amendment) Act passed?

(A) 11th December, 2018

(B)11th December, 2019

(D) 11th October, 2020

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act was passed on (B) 11th December, 2019.
It was operationalized on March 11, 2024.

So, the correct answer is (B)11th December, 2019

About the Citizenship (Amendment) Act

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) of 2019 is a law that allows certain religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan to become Indian citizens more quickly.
It applies to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians who entered India by December 31, 2014.

107. The legislative origins of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to which Constitutional Amendment Bill?

(A) 61st Constitutional Amendment Bill

(B) 62nd Constitutional Amendment Bill

(D) 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The legislative origins of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to the 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill, which was introduced in 1989 to constitutionalize the Panchayati system. However, the Rajya Sabha did not pass the bill.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the Parliament of India in December 1992 and came into force in April 1993. The act added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution, and established a three-tier Panchayati raj system for local self-government.

So, the correct answer is (D) 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill

108. Which company established its factory in 1632 at Patna, Bihar?

(A) British East India Company

(B) Dutch East India Company

(D) French East India Company

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Dutch East India Company established its factory in Patna, Bihar, in 1632. The factory is now located where the Patna Collectorate is. This factory played a significant role in the company’s trade activities in the region.

So, the correct answer is (B) Dutch East India Company.

109. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of decentralization?

(A) Autonomy

(B) People’s participation

(D) To empower local communities

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Decentralization is a process of transferring power and authority from a central government to lower levels of government, such as local communities or regions.
The goal of decentralization is to empower local communities, increase their participation in decision-making, and improve the efficiency of governance.

Other options

(A) Autonomy: Decentralization often grants autonomy to local communities, allowing them to make their own decisions within specified boundaries.

(B) People’s participation: Decentralization aims to increase people’s participation in governance by giving them a greater say in decisions that affect their lives.

(D) To empower local communities: This is a key objective of decentralization, as it aims to enhance the capabilities and authority of local communities.

Therefore, instilling non-confidence among local communities is not a characteristic of decentralization. Instead, decentralization is designed to build trust and confidence in local governance.

The correct answer is (C) To instill non-confidence among local communities.

110. Which Act is not the landmark in the development of the Constitution during the British Rule?

(A) The Regulating Act, 1773

(B) The Charter Act, 1833

(D) The Protection of Civil Rights Act. 1955

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

111. Which one among the following is not an objective of food management in India?

(A) Distribution of food grains

(B) Procurement of food grains

(D) Export of food grains

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, is a significant piece of legislation that addresses discrimination and safeguards the rights of certain groups, it was not enacted during British rule. It was passed by the Indian Parliament after India gained independence.
The other options, The Regulating Act, 1773, The Charter Act, 1833, and The Government of India Act, 1919, were all key milestones in the development of the Indian Constitution during British rule. They laid the foundation for self-governance and introduced elements of representative democracy.

So, the correct answer is (D) The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

112. Revenue deficit in India implies that

(A) the Indian Government needs its expenses which will create capital assets

(B) the Indian Government needs to borrow in order to finance its expenses which do not create capital assets

(D) the Indian Government needs to borrow from international financial institutions

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) the Indian Government needs to borrow in order to finance its expenses which do not create capital assets.
Revenue deficit occurs when the government’s revenue from taxes and other non-debt sources falls short of its expenditure on non-capital assets. This means the government has to borrow money to cover its day-to-day expenses, such as salaries, subsidies, and defense.

Other options:

(A) the Indian Government needs its expenses which will create capital assets: This is not the definition of revenue deficit. Capital expenditure creates assets for the future, while revenue deficit refers to current expenses.

(C) the Indian Government needs to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India against government securities: While this is one way the government can borrow money, it doesn’t capture the essence of revenue deficit, which is the shortfall in revenue compared to non-capital expenditure.

(D) the Indian Government needs to borrow from international financial institutions: This is another source of borrowing for the government, but it doesn’t directly address the core issue of revenue deficit.

Therefore, the most accurate definition of revenue deficit is that the Indian government needs to borrow to finance its non-capital expenses.

113. Which of the following countries is top trading partner in India’s 2019-2020?

(A) USA

(B) China

(D) Saudi Arabia

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The United States remained India’s top trading partner for the second consecutive fiscal year in 2019-2020. This reflects the growing economic ties between the two countries.

So, the correct answer is (A) USA.

114. Which of the following infrastructure sectors of India is related with Bharatmala Project?

(A) Telecom sector

(B) Railways

(D) Port sector

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Bharatmala Project is a massive infrastructure development initiative in India primarily focused on improving road connectivity across the country.
It aims to build and upgrade highways, expressways, and other road infrastructure to enhance transportation efficiency and economic growth.

The correct answer is (C) Road infrastructure.

Bharatmala Project

The Bharatmala Project, launched in 2015 by the Union government, is an extensive initiative under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways aimed at enhancing India’s road infrastructure. The project plans to develop 83,677 km of highways and roads with an investment of approximately Rs 7 lakh crore.
In its first phase, the project focuses on constructing 34,800 km of highways at a cost of Rs 5.35 lakh crore. The Bharatmala Project emphasizes several key initiatives, including:
Border and International Connectivity: Enhancing access to remote and border areas.
Coastal and Port Connectivity: Improving road links to ports for better logistics and trade.
National and Economic Corridors: Streamlining traffic and boosting efficiency on major trade routes.

This comprehensive approach aims to improve overall transportation efficiency, promote economic growth, and enhance regional connectivity across the country.

115. Which of the following agencies releases the index of industrial production to measure industrial performance in India?

(A) The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

(B) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

(D) The Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Central Statistics Office (CSO) is the government agency responsible for compiling and releasing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in India. The IIP is a vital indicator of the performance of India’s manufacturing sector.

So, the correct answer is (C) The Central Statistics Office (CSO).

116. According the the, Ease of Doing Business Report, 2020, India improved their rank from

(A) 77 in previous year to 63rd position

(B) 130 in previous year to 100th position

(D) 77 in previous year to 67th position

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

According to the Ease of Doing Business Report, 2020, India improved its ranking from 77th in the previous year to 63rd position. This significant improvement reflects the government’s efforts to create a more business-friendly environment and streamline various regulatory processes.

So, the correct answer is (A) 77 in the previous year to 63rd position.

117. To improve institutional agricultural credit flow, what credit target for 2020-21 has been fixed in the Union Budget of India?

(A) 10 lakh crore

(B) 13.5 lakh crore

(D) 16.5 lakh crore

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

In the Union Budget of India for 2020-21, the government set a credit target of Rs. 15 lakh crore for agricultural credit flow. This was aimed at improving access to credit for farmers and promoting agricultural growth.

so, the correct answer is (C) 15 lakh crore.

118. The objective of PM-KUSUM Scheme is

(A) to reduce farmers’ dependence on monsoon for irrigation

(B) to reduce farmers’ dependence on moneylenders for credit

(D) to remove farmers’ dependence on diesel and kerosene and to link pump sets to solar energy

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme aims to promote the use of solar energy for agricultural purposes.
Its primary objective is to reduce farmers’ dependence on fossil fuels like diesel and kerosene for operating their irrigation pumps. By linking pump sets to solar energy, the scheme aims to provide farmers with a more sustainable and cost-effective source of power for irrigation.
The scheme was launched in March 2019 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

So, the correct answer is (D) to remove farmers’ dependence on diesel and kerosene and to link pump sets to solar energy.

119. Which of the following commercial banks of India comes in top 100 global banks?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) SBI

(D) Kotak Mahindra Bank

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The State Bank of India (SBI) is one of the commercial banks of India that is among the top 100 global banks.
In November 2022, SBI was ranked 55th on the global list. SBI is India’s largest public sector bank and its biggest lender.

So, the correct answer is (B) SBI

120. The Government of India announced a new scheme ‘NIRVIK’ in the Budget for 2020-21. Which of the following sectors of economy will take the benefit from this scheme?

(A) Agriculture sector

(B) Industrial sector

(D) Export sector

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The NIRVIK scheme, which stands for “Niryat Rin Vikas Yojana,” was specifically designed to benefit the export sector in India.

Its primary objectives include:

- Enhanced insurance coverage: Providing higher insurance coverage for exporters to mitigate risks associated with international trade.
- Reduced premiums: Lowering the premiums for small-scale exporters to make insurance more affordable.
- Simplified procedures: Streamlining the claim settlement process to make it easier for exporters to access insurance benefits.
By offering these benefits, NIRVIK aims to encourage exports, boost the Indian economy, and create more employment opportunities.

So, the correct answer is (D) Export sector.

121. Bihar Government has introduced the Comprehensive Financial Management. System (CFMS) 1st April, 2019. This system on

(A) will make all financial activities in the State online and paperless

(B) will solve the problem of NPA of banks

(D) will manage State Government finances including local bodies

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is will make all financial activities in the State online and Paperless.

Key Points of Bihar’s Comprehensive Financial Management System (CFMS)

Launch Date: Introduced on April 1, 2019.
Objective: Digitalize financial operations, making them online and paperless.
Scope: Handles financial matters for all state government departments, including budget preparation.
Real-Time Monitoring: Features dashboards for updates on revenue and expenditure.
Budget Tracking: Monitors budgets, grants, and expenditure details at various levels.
Pending Bills Management: Tracks pending bills and claims for approval.
Central Database: Maintains records for pensioners, employees, and beneficiaries.
Duplication Prevention: Uses a validation engine to check for duplication in financial transactions.
Efficient Fund Management: Monitors state liabilities and real-time financial positions.
Transparency: Promotes accountability in government financial operations.

122. The Government of India conferred the Krishi Karman Award to Bihar State on 2nd January, 2020. This award was given for

(A) production and productivity of maize and wheat

(B) food grain production

(D) production of oilseeds

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Bihar won the Krishi Karman Award for the fifth time, recognized for its exceptional production and productivity of maize and wheat.
This award scheme, announced by the Agriculture Minister in 2010-11, aims to reward states for their food grain output.
Prime Minister Modi presented the awards in January 2020, where four farmers from Bihar received Rs. 2 lakh each, alongside a citation and trophy.
Additionally, the state’s agriculture department was awarded Rs. 2 crore. Bihar previously won the award in 2011-12 for rice, 2012-13 for wheat, and in 2015-16 and 2016-17 for maize. Tamil Nadu was also honored for oilseed production.

So, the correct answer is (A) production and productivity of maize and wheat

123. Bihar Government launched a new scheme ‘Satat Jivikoparian Yojana’ in August 2018. The objective of this scheme is

(A) to provide unemployment allowance to youth

(B) to provide employment in rural areas through local bodies

(D) to provide free training for skill upgradation of youth

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Satat Jivikoparian Yojana launched by the Bihar Government aims to uplift extremely poor households by providing them with sustainable income-generating assets.
The objective of this programme is to empower ultra-poor households traditionally engaged in production, transportation and selling of country liquor/toddy; ultra-poor from SC/ST and other communities through diversification of livelihoods, capacity building and improved access to finance.

So, the correct answer is (C) to provide sustainable income generating assets to extremely poor households.

124. Which of the following is not included in Seven Resolves (Saat Nishchay) of Bihar Government?

(A) Women employment

(B) Clean drinking water

(D) Child welfare

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Bihar Government launched Saat Nischay Yojana part 1 in 2015 for the period of 5 years and it got success in implementing its objectives of strengthening social infrastructure of Bihar.
The Saat Nischay (Seven Resolves) initiative, promised by Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar during elections, aims to enhance the state’s development through targeted programs.

Aarthik Hal, Yuvaonko Bal: Focuses on creating employment opportunities for youths, especially school dropouts, through skill development courses.
Aarakshit Rozgar, Mahilaon Ko Adhikar: Empowers women by providing 35% job reservations in state government positions for educated women.
Har Ghar Bijli, Lagatar: Ensures electricity connections to every household in Bihar.
Har Ghar Nal Ka Jal: Aims to provide clean drinking water to all residents by connecting households with water pipelines, eliminating dependence on hand pumps.
Ghar Tak Pakki Gali – Naaliyan: Enhances road infrastructure to improve transportation, including rural connectivity.
Shauchalay Nirmaan, Ghar Ka Sammaan: Plans to construct approximately 1.72 lakh toilets to promote health and hygiene.
Avsar Badhe, Aage Padhein: Aims to develop higher educational infrastructure for improved youth education.

Child welfare is not explicitly included as one of the main objectives.

So, the correct answer is (D) Child welfare

125. The per capita Net State Domestic Product at constant prices for Bihar is less than the country. In the year 2018-19, it was

(A) 75 percent of the national average

(B) 60 percent of the national average

(D) 33 percent of the national average

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

In 2018-19, Bihar’s per capita Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) was 33 percent of the national average, with Bihar’s NSDP at Rs 30,617 compared to the national figure of Rs 92,565.

So, the correct answer is (D) 33 percent of the national average

The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) grew at a CAGR of 13.17% from 2015-16 to 2020-21, driven primarily by the tertiary sector, which grew by 13.1% and 13.3% in 2017-18 and 2018-19, respectively.
Additionally, Bihar ranks as the fourth-largest producer of vegetables and eighth for fruits in India, with about 80% of its population employed in agriculture, significantly higher than the national average.

126. In which of the following colleges, Gandhiji had studied?

(A) Samaldas College, Bhavnagar

(B) Dharmendrasinhji College, Rajkot

(D) Bahauddin College, Junagadh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Mahatma Gandhi studied at Samaldas College in Bhavnagar, Gujarat.
Gandhi enrolled at Samaldas College in January 1888 after graduating from high school in Ahmedabad in November 1887.

So, the correct answer is (A) Samaldas College, Bhavnagar

127. Which of the following persons had participated actively in the Revolt of 1857?

(A) Nana Saheb (Kanpur)

(B) Begum Hazrat Mahal (Lucknow)

(D) Begum Zeenat Mahal (Delhi)

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

All of the individuals listed actively participated in the Revolt of 1857.

Nana Saheb led the revolt in Kanpur.
Begum Hazrat Mahal was a key leader in the Lucknow uprising.
Maulavi Ahmadullah played a significant role in the revolt in Faizabad.
Begum Zeenat Mahal was another notable leader involved in the Delhi uprising.

Therefore, multiple individuals contributed to the Revolt of 1857, making it a multifaceted uprising with leaders from various regions.

So, the correct answer is (E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

128. About which Act, Jawaharlal Nehru had said, “We were provided with a car with all brakes and no engine”?

(A) Act of 1858

(B) Act of 1909

(D) Act of 1935

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Jawaharlal Nehru famously referred to the Government of India Act of 1935 as a “car with all brakes and no engine.”
This metaphor highlighted the Act’s significant limitations in providing real self-governance to India. While it introduced certain democratic features, it still retained substantial British control, particularly over key areas like defense and foreign affairs.
Nehru’s criticism emphasized the Act’s inability to truly advance India’s path towards independence.

So, the correct answer is (D) Act of 1935

129. For how many days did Dandi March last?

(A) 10 days

(B) 20 days

(D) 30 days

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, was a 24-day nonviolent civil disobedience movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930.
It began on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad and culminated on April 6, 1930, in Dandi, Gujarat.
The march was a symbolic protest against the British salt monopoly and the oppressive salt tax imposed on Indians.

So, the correct answer is (C) 24 days.

130. Who is the author of the popular song, Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna Ab Hamare Dil Mein Hai?

(A) Surya Sen

(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad

(D) Ram Prasad Bismil

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

While the song “Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna Ab Hamare Dil Mein Hai” is often associated with the Indian freedom fighters, it was actually written by Bismil Azimabadi, a poet and revolutionary. This patriotic poem was popularized by Ram Prasad Bismil, another prominent revolutionary, who recited it before his execution.
Therefore, while the song is closely linked to the Indian independence movement and the sacrifices made by its leaders, the specific authorship lies with Bismil Azimabadi.

131. Which movement was started as a reaction to the Partition of Bengal?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) Purna Swaraj Movement

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Swadeshi Movement was started as a direct reaction to the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
This movement emphasized the boycott of British goods and the promotion of Indian-made products. It was a significant step towards Indian self-sufficiency and national awakening.
While the other movements mentioned also played crucial roles in India’s struggle for independence, the Swadeshi Movement was specifically initiated in response to the Partition of Bengal.

So, the correct answer is (C) Swadeshi Movement.

132. Who among the following advocates had appeared for the INA trials at Delhi in 1945-46?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Bhulabhai Desai

(D) Sardar Patel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Bhulabhai Desai was one of the prominent advocates who appeared for the Indian National Army (INA) trials at Delhi in 1945-46.
He, along with other prominent lawyers like Asaf Ali and Jawaharlal Nehru, defended the INA officers who were charged with treason by the British.
The INA trials played a crucial role in galvanizing public opinion against British rule and fueled the Indian independence movement.

The correct answer is (B) Bhulabhai Desai.

133. Where did Madam Cama unfurl India’s tricolour flag of freedom?

(A) Paris

(B) London

(D) Geneva

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Madam Bhikaji Cama, a prominent Indian revolutionary, unfurled the Indian tricolour flag for the first time in a foreign land at the International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart, Germany, on August 22, 1907.
This bold act of defiance against British colonial rule was a significant milestone in India’s struggle for independence.

The correct answer is (C) Stuttgart.

134. Which of the following pairs is correct?

(A) Vinoba Bhave-Second Individual Satyagrahi

(B) C. R. Das-Deshbandhu

(D) Shyamji Krishna Varma- Founder of India House in Paris

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Vinoba Bhave – Second Individual Satyagrahi: This is incorrect. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first person to participate in the Individual Satyagraha movement, a protest against the British government in 1940. Bhave was arrested for making anti-war speeches in the village of Paunar in Wardha, Maharashtra. while Jawaharlal Nehru was the second individual satyagrahi, nominated by Mahatma Gandhi.
William Wedderburn – Congress President in 1907: This is incorrect. William Wedderburn was a British Member of Parliament and a supporter of Indian independence. The Surat Session of 1907 was a major event that took place on the bank of the Tapti River in Surat. Dr Rash Behari Ghosh presided over the Surat session.
Shyamji Krishna Varma – Founder of India House in Paris: This is incorrect. In 1905, Shyamji Krishna Varma founded India House in London as a hostel for Indian students. It became a meeting place for Indian revolutionaries and a prominent center for Indian nationalism outside of India.

Therefore, the only correct pair is C. R. Das – Deshbandhu. C. R. Das was a prominent Indian leader and a prominent member of the Indian National Congress. He was often referred to as “Deshbandhu,” which means “Friend of the Nation.”

So, the correct answer is (B) C. R. Das-Deshbandhu

135. Which day was declared as Purna Swaraj Day’ by the Indian National Congress?

(A) 26-01-1930

(B) 15-08-1947

(D) 31-12-1950

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Indian National Congress passed the historic ‘Purna Swaraj’ (total independence) resolution on 19 December 1929 during its Lahore session.
This marked a significant shift in the Congress’s approach to achieving independence from British rule. Following this resolution, a public declaration was made on 26 January 1930, which the Congress urged Indians to celebrate as ‘Independence Day.’
This day symbolized the commitment to complete self-rule and inspired widespread nationalist sentiment across the country, laying the foundation for future movements towards independence.

So, the correct answer is (A) 26-01-1930

136. When was Bihar established?

(A) 1911

(B) 1912

(D) 1914

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Bihar was established as a separate province from Bengal in 1912.
On 1 April 1936 Bihar and Orissa became separate provinces from the Government of India Act, 1935.

So, the correct answer is (B) 1912

137. In Tinkathia System in Bihar, how much land was to be reserved for indigo cultivation?

(A) 01/10

(B) 01/03

(D) 03/25

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Under the Tinkathia System, farmers were obligated to cultivate indigo on three kathas per beegha of their land, which translates to 3/20th of their landholding.
This system was exploitative and led to widespread discontent among farmers. It was one of the key issues that Mahatma Gandhi addressed during the Champaran Satyagraha.

The correct answer is (C) 03/20.

138. Who was the first Chief Minister of Bihar?

(A) Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Satya Pal Malik

(D) Rabri Devi

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Shri Krishna Singh was the first Chief Minister of Bihar, serving from 1946 to 1961. He is often considered one of the architects of modern Bihar.

So, the correct answer is (A) Shri Krishna Singh.

139. Where was the first Congress Session in Bihar held?

(A) Patna

(B) Gaya

(D) Darbhanga

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

In 1912, the Indian National Congress held its 27th session at Bankipore, Patna, presided over by Rao Bahadur Raghunath Narasinha Mudholkar.

So, the correct answer is (A) Patna

The Congress, founded in 1885, had its first session in Bombay, chaired by Womesh Chandar Banerjee, during Lord Dufferin’s tenure as Viceroy.
The second session took place in 1886 in Calcutta, led by Dadabhai Naoroji.
The split between moderates and extremists occurred at the Surat session in 1907, presided by Rash Behari Ghosh.

140. Which title was given to Jayaprakash Narayan?

(A) Praja Hitechhu

(B) Lok Nayak

(D) Rashtra Nayak

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Jayaprakash Narayan was given the title (B) Lok Nayak.

About Jayaprakash Narayan

Jayaprakash Narayan, born in 1902 in Sitabdiara, Bihar, was deeply influenced by both Marxist ideas during his time in the USA and Gandhian ideology.
He joined the Indian National Congress in 1929 and was imprisoned for a year in 1932 for his participation in the civil disobedience movement.
In 1934, he co-founded the Congress Socialist Party with notable members like Acharya Narendra Deva, Ram Manohar Lohia, and Minoo Masani.
Later, he left the Congress and launched an anti-Congress campaign, forming the Praja Socialist Party in 1952.
Posthumously, he received India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1999 for his significant contributions to the freedom struggle and the upliftment of the poor.
Known as Lok Nayak, he became a prominent leader of the young socialist movement, playing a crucial role in the formation of the Janata Party, which brought India its first non-Congress government in 1977.

141. The missing number in the sequence

4, 18, 48, 100, ?, 294, 448

(A) 94

(B) 164

(D) 192

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To find the missing number in the sequence 4,18,48,100,?,294,448, let’s examine the pattern in the differences between consecutive terms:

18−4=14
48−18=30
100−48=52
? − 100
294−?
448−294=154

Now let’s look at the differences between the differences:

30−14=16
52−30=22
(?−100) −52
(154) − (294−?)

If we analyze further, we notice that the first differences seem to be increasing by 6, then by 8, indicating a pattern.

Following this, we can assume that the difference between the last known difference and the next difference (which we don’t know yet) could also follow the increasing pattern.

If we consider the increase in differences:

From 14 to 30 is 16,
From 30 to 52 is 22,
The next increase could be 28 (since 22+6=28).

Thus:

Next difference = 52+28=80.

Now we can find the missing term:

? = 100+80=180.

Now let’s check:

294−180=114 (this should follow the previous pattern).

The missing number in the sequence is (C) 180.

142. If ²ⁿC₃: ⁿC₂= 44:3, then the value of n is

(A) 1

(B) 6

(D) 4

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

2nC3 ÷ nC2=44 ÷ 3 …. (1)

We know that, nCr =n! ÷ r! × (n−r)!

From (1), (2n! ÷3! × (2n−3)!) ÷ (n! ÷2! × (n−2)!) = 44÷3…. (2)

Expanding 2n! & n!,

2n! =2n× (2n−1) × (2n−2) × (2n−3)!…. (3)

n! = n× (n−1) × (n−2)!….(4)

From (2), (3) & (4),

[2n× (2n−1) × (2n−2) ÷ 6] ÷ [n× (n−1) ÷ 2]= 44÷ 3

Simplifying,

[2× (2n−1) × (2n−2)] ÷ [3× (n−1)]=44÷ 3

[(2n−1) × (2n−2) ÷ (n−1)]=22

2× (2n−1) =22

2n−1=11

2n=12

n=6

Hence, n = 6 is the solution to your problem.

143. If the average of ‘m’ numbers is n² and that of ‘n’ numbers is m², then the average of m + n numbers is

(A) n/m

(B) m/n

(D) m – n

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The sum of ‘m’ numbers is m×n².
The sum of ‘n’ numbers is n×m².
The sum of all numbers is (m×n²) + (n× m²) = mn (m + n).
The average of m + n numbers is mn (m + n) / (m + n) = mn.

Therefore, the answer is (C) mn.

144. In a group of athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 are in the hockey team and 29 in the football team. If 14 play hockey and basketball, 12 play football and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 8 play all the three games, then how many play football only?

(A) 10

(B) 29

(D) 18

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Let’s use Venn diagrams to visualize the information.

Football (F): 29
Hockey (H): 26
Basketball (B): 21
F ∩ H: 15
F ∩ B: 12
H ∩ B: 14
F ∩ H ∩ B: 8

We want to find the number of people who play football only.

F only = F – (F ∩ H) – (F ∩ B) + (F ∩ H ∩ B)
F only = 29 – 15 – 12 + 8
F only = 10

Therefore, 10 people play football only. The answer is (A).

145. Mohan can do a bit of work in 25 days which can be completed by Sohan in 20 days. Both together labour for 5 days and afterward Mohan leaves off. How long will Sohan take to complete the remaining work?

(A) 20 days

(B) 11 days

(D) 21 days

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Mohan can do 1/25th of the work in one day.
Sohan can do 1/20th of the work in one day.

Together,

they can do (1/25) + (1/20) = 9/100 of the work in one day.

In 5 days,

they complete 5×9/100 = 9/20 of the work.

So, the remaining work is 1 – 9/20 = 11/20.

Sohan will take 11/20 × 20 = 11 days to complete the remaining work.

Therefore, the answer is (B) 11 days.

146. A clock is started at 12:00 noon By 10 minutes past 5:00, the hour hand has turned through

(A) 135°

(B) 145°

(D) 165°

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

To find the angle turned by the hour hand from 12:00 noon to 5:10, we can follow these steps:

Calculate the total time passed:

From 12:00 to 5:00 is 5 hours.
From 5:00 to 5:10 is an additional 10 minutes.
Therefore, the total time passed is 5 hours + 10 minutes=

5 hours+ 10/60 hours = 5+ (1/6) = 31/6 hours.

Calculate the angle turned by the hour hand:

The hour hand moves at a rate of 30^∘ per hour (since 360^∘/12 hours =30^∘ per hour).

In 31/6 hours, the angle turned is:

Angle=30^∘× (31/6) = 5×31=155^∘.

Thus, the hour hand has turned through 155^∘.

The answer is (C) 155°.

147. Which one of the following cannot be the square of a natural number?

(A) 26569

(B) 143642

(D) 28561

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The possible last digits of squares of natural numbers are:

If a number ends in 0, the square ends in 0.
If a number ends in 1, the square ends in 1.
If a number ends in 2, the square ends in 4.
If a number ends in 3, the square ends in 9.
If a number ends in 4, the square ends in 6.
If a number ends in 5, the square ends in 5.
If a number ends in 6, the square ends in 6.
If a number ends in 7, the square ends in 9.
If a number ends in 8, the square ends in 4.
If a number ends in 9, the square ends in 1.

Now, let’s check the last digit of each option:

(A) 26569 → Last digit is 9 (possible)

(B) 143642 → Last digit is 2 (not possible, since squares cannot end in 2)

(D) 28561 → Last digit is 1 (possible)

Based on the last digit analysis, the number that cannot be the square of a natural number is:143642

So. the answer is (B) 143642.

148. Given that

217x+131y=913

131x+217y=827

then x and y are respectively

(A) 5 and 7

(B) 3 and 2

(D) 2 and 5

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

To solve the system of equations:

217x+131y=913 (Equation 1)
131x+217y=827 (Equation 2)

We can use the method of elimination or substitution. Here, we’ll use elimination.

Step 1: Multiply the equations to align coefficients

To eliminate one variable, we can multiply Equation 1 by 131 and Equation 2 by 217:

131(217x+131y) = 131 × 913
217(131x+217y) =217× 827

Calculating these gives:

28427x+17161y=119603(Equation 3)
28427x+47089y=179459(Equation 4)

Step 2: Subtract the equations

Subtract Equation 3 from Equation 4:

(28427x+47089y) − (28427x+17161y) =179459−119603

This simplifies to:

29928y=59856

Step 3: Solve for 𝑦

y=59856/29928 = 2

Step 4: Substitute y back to find x

Substituting 𝑦=2 into Equation 1:

217x+131(2) = 913

217x+262=913

217x=913−262

217x=651

x= 651/217= 3

Thus, the values of 𝑥 and y are:

x=3, y=2

Therefore, the answer is: 3 and 2 (B)

149. [(598+479)²-(598-479)²] ÷ [598×479] =?

(A) 4

(B) 10

(D) 8

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

We can use the following algebraic identity to simplify the expression:

(a + b)² – (a – b)² = 4ab

Substituting a = 598 and b = 479,

we get:

[(598 + 479)² – (598 – 479)²] ÷ [598×479] = [4(598) (479)] ÷ [598×479]

Simplifying further, we get:

4 = 4

Therefore, the value of the expression is 4.

So, the answer is (A).

150. The population of a town is 176400. If it increases annually at the rate of 5%, then what will be its population after two years?

(A) 194481

(B) 296841

(D) 396841

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

We can use the formula for compound interest to calculate the population after two years:

A = P (1 + r/n) ^(nt)

Where:

A = final population
P = initial population
r = annual interest rate (as a decimal)
n = number of times interest is compounded per year
t = number of years

In this case, P = 176400, r = 0.05, n = 1 (compounded annually), and t = 2. Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

A = 176400(1 + 0.05/1) ^(1×2)

A = 176400(1.05)²

A = 194481

Therefore, the population after two years will be 194481. The answer is (A).

65th BPSC PYQ Prelims Solved GS & CSAT Questions

1. Who established Ashta Pradhan?

(A) Chandragupta

(B) Ashoka

(D) Shivaji

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Ashta Pradhan was established by Shivaji.

So, the answer is (D) Shivaji

The eight prominent officials of Marathas were known as Ashta Pradhan.

Peshwa- Prime Minister.
Amatya/ Mazumdar- Finance Minister.
Samant/Dabir- Foreign Minister.
Waqia-Navis-Home Minister.
Sachiv- Secratary, preparing royal edicts.
Sar-i-Naubat or Senapati – Commander-in-Chief, managing the forces and defense of the Empire.
Nyayadhish – Chief Justice, dispensing justice on civil and criminal matters.
Panditrao – High Priest, managing internal religious matters.

The council was formed in 1674 by Chatrapati Shivaji. The term Ashta Pradhan literally translates to “the Prime Eight”, from the Sanskrit ashta (“eight”) and pradhan (“prime”).

2. Which Delhi Sultan built maximum number of canals?

(A) Firuz Shah Tughluq

(B) Iltutmish

(D) Sikandar Lodi

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Firoz Shah Tughlaq is the Delhi Sultan who built the largest number of canals.
So, the answer is(A) Firuz Shah Tughluq
Firuz Shah Tughlaq was born in 1309 and became the Sultan of Delhi following the death of his cousin Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. He was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty, which governed Delhi from 1320 to 1412 AD, and he ruled from 1351 to 1388 AD.
The British referred to him as the “Father of the Irrigation Department” due to the numerous gardens and canals he constructed, including:
A canal connecting the Yamuna River to Hissar city.
A canal linking the Sutlej River to the Ghaggar River.
Canals from the Mandvi and Sirmour Hills to Hansi in Haryana.
A canal from the Ghaggar River to Firuzabad.
Additionally, Firuz Shah established four new towns, Firuzabad, Fatehabad, Jaunpur, and Hissar.
He was also responsible for the imposition of Jaziya on the Brahmins. He passed away in 1388.

3. Who used Hooghly as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal?

(A) The Dutch

(B) The French

(D) The British

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The Portuguese used Hooghly as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal. They established factories and trading posts in Hooghly in the 16th and 17th centuries.
They used Hooghly as a base for piracy and to deceive customs duties.
The Portuguese engaged in piracy to maintain their dominance in the Bay of Bengal, especially against the British and Mughals. A prominent figure in Portuguese piracy was Pedro Lopes de Sousa, who operated out of Hooghly.

So, the answer is (C) The Portuguese

4. Under whose leadership was suppression of Thugs achieved?

(A) Lord Clive

(B) Captain Sleeman

(D) Alexander Burnes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The suppression of Thugs was effectively led by Captain William Henry Sleeman, who started as a soldier and later became an administrator.
In 1835, the ‘Thuggee and Dacoity Department’ was established by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck, with Sleeman appointed as its superintendent.
During the 1830s, under Bentinck’s directive, Sleeman focused on eradicating the Thug menace. His efforts culminated in the capture of “Feringhea” (Syeed Amir Ali), a notorious leader of the Thugs.
The rigorous operations he led resulted in the arrest of approximately 1,400 Thugs, many of whom were executed or sentenced to life imprisonment. A special prison was also established in Jabalpur to detain Thugs.

So, the answer is (B) Captain Sleeman

5. The Viceroy who followed policy aggressive Afghanistan was towards

(A) Lord Mayo

(B) Lord Lytton

(D) Lord Canning

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Lord Lytton was the Viceroy of India who pursued an aggressive policy towards Afghanistan.

So, the answer is (B) Lord Lytton

About Lord Lytton

Known for: Aggressive policy towards Afghanistan, Second Anglo-Afghan War, and the Great Indian Famine of 1876-1878
Time period: Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880
Appointment: Appointed by Conservative Prime Minister Benjamin Disraeli
Other actions: Organized the Delhi Durbar in 1877, where Queen Victoria was given the title of Kaiser-I-Hind, or Empress of India
Lord Lytton’s aggressive policy was to incorporate Afghanistan into the British sphere of influence and subjugation. The Treaty of Gandamak, signed in 1879 by Mohammad Yaqub Khan of Afghanistan and Sir Louis Cavagnri of the British government’s India office, officially ended the Second Anglo-Afghan War.

6. In 1930, from where Mahatma Gandhi started the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(A) Wardha

(B) Dandi

(D) Sabarmati

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The Civil Disobedience Movement, initiated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930, began with the Dandi March. On March 12, Gandhi and 78 followers left Sabarmati Ashram, marching 241 miles to Dandi.

So, the answer is (D) Sabarmati

They aimed to protest the British salt tax. On April 6, Gandhi broke the salt law by collecting salt from the beach, symbolizing defiance against British rule.
This act inspired widespread participation, leading to mass protests and significant government repression, marking a pivotal moment in India’s independence struggle.

7. The Sarabandi Campaign of 1922 was led by

(A) Chittaranjan Das

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(D) Lala Lajpat Rai

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Sarabandi campaign of 1922 was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. In this campaign, the peasants decided not to pay the taxes.

So, the correct answer is (B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

About Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Birth: October 31, 1875, in Nadiad, Gujarat.
Legal Career: Practiced law in Godhra, Borsad, and Anand after passing the bar examination.
Kheda Movement: Joined Gandhi to advocate for tax exemptions during the 1918 plague and famine.
Non-Cooperation Movement: Joined in 1920; recruited over 300,000 members across West India.
Post-Independence Role: Became India’s first Deputy Prime Minister.
Home Minister: Appointed on the first anniversary of Independence.
States Department: Responsible for the integration of 565 princely states into the Union of India.
Tribute: Nehru referred to him as “the builder and consolidator of new India.”
Nickname: Known as the “Bismarck of India

8. Who was the President of the Indian National Congress at the time of partition of India?

(A) J. B. Kripalani

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) C. Rajagopalachari

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The President of the Indian National Congress at the time of the partition of India in 1947 was: (A) J. B. Kripalani

Indian National Congress (INC) Leadership Timeline

1947: J.B. Kripalani served as President of the INC.
1946: Jawaharlal Nehru was the President before Kripalani.
1948-1949: Pattabhi Sitaramayya served as President.
1950: Purushottam Das Tandon took over as President.
1951: Jawaharlal Nehru returned as President.

About INC

Foundation: Established in December 1885 in Bombay.
Founder: A.O. Hume is credited as the founder of the INC.
First President: Wyomesh Chandra Banerjee was the first President in 1885.
First Muslim President: Badruddin Tyabji, the third President, served in 1887.
First Female President: Annie Besant was the first woman to hold the presidency of the INC.

9. Who led the 1857 Revolt in Bihar?

(A) Babu Amar Singh

(B) Hare Krishna Singh

(D) Raja Shahzada Singh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Babu Kunwar Singh and the Indian Rebellion of 1857

Leader: Babu Kunwar Singh (1777 – 1858) was a key figure in the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
Age: Nearly 80 years old when he took charge of the sepoys at Danapur on July 25, 1857.
Attack on Arrah: Led his troops in an attack on the district headquarters at Arrah.
Siege: Held the fort at Arrah for 7 days until retaken by British officer Major Vincent Eyre.
Guerrilla Warfare: Known for his mastery of guerrilla tactics in battle.

Key Achievements

Conquest of Azamgarh: In March 1858, he successfully conquered Azamgarh (now in UP).
Battle of Jagdispur: Led a victorious battle near Jagdispur on July 23, 1857, defeating British forces led by Captain le Grand, despite being badly injured.
Background: Belonged to the Ujjainiya (Panwar) Rajput house of Jagdispur, in the Bhojpur district of Bihar.

Honors

Commemoration: In 1966, the Government of India issued a stamp in his honor, recognizing his contributions to the struggle for independence.

10. Who led cultivators in Bihar during the Non-cooperation Movement?

(A) Swami Vidyanand

(B) Raj Kumar Shukla

(D) J. B. Sen

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Swami Vidyanand was a prominent leader who played a crucial role in mobilizing cultivators in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
He had previously agitated against zamindars and was a strong supporter of the Congress.

So, the answer is (A) Swami Vidyanand

Key Points About the Non-Cooperation Movement

Endorsement: The movement was officially endorsed at the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920.
Gandhi’s Vision: Gandhi declared that full implementation of the non-cooperation program could lead to swaraj (self-rule) within a year.
Non-Violent Approach: In March 1920, Gandhi issued a decree advocating non-violent non-cooperation.

Objectives of the Movement

Swadeshi Principles: Encouraged adoption of indigenous products and boycott of foreign goods.
Eradication of Untouchability: Called for efforts to eliminate social inequalities.
Adoption of Charkha: Promoted spinning as a symbol of self-reliance.
Features of the Movement
Surrender of Titles: Indians were asked to renounce titles and resign from local body positions.
Resignation from Government Jobs: Encouraged people to quit government employment as a form of protest.
Withdrawal from Schools: Urged parents to pull their children from government-run educational institutions.
Boycott of Elections: Indians were asked to boycott elections to legislative councils.

Conclusion

Gandhi called off the movement in February 1922 following the Chauri Chaura incident, where violence erupted, emphasizing the commitment to non-violence.

11. Who is considered as the creator of Modern Bihar?

(A) Sachchidananda Sinha

(B) Kumar Kalika Prasad Sinha

(D) Acharya Narendra Dev

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Sachchidananda Sinha. He is often regarded as the creator of modern Bihar due to his significant contributions to the state’s development and governance.

Sachchidananda Sinha: Creator of Modern Bihar

Sachchidananda Sinha is regarded as the creator of modern Bihar. He was a prominent advocate and an active member of the Indian National Congress, participating in significant movements such as the Home Rule League. As a leading journalist and educationist, he made notable contributions to Bihar’s development.
Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly (Interim) and played a crucial role in the separation of Bihar from Bengal and Orissa. He also served as the first vice-chancellor of Patna University and established the Sinha Library in memory of his wife, Radhika. His legacy is honored through the Sachidananda Sinha College in Aurangabad.

Other Notable Figures

Kumar Kalika Prasad Sinha served two terms in the Bihar Legislative Council and Assembly and was an active participant in the Non-Cooperation Movement as a student leader.
Sir Ganesh Singh was a Local Self Government Minister during the British period and contributed to the development of institutions like Darbhanga Medical College and Patna Medical College. He is also the subject of a short film by director Prakash Jha.
Acharya Narendra Dev was an important member of the Congress Socialist Party and served as Vice-Chancellor of Banaras Hindu University. In 1975, an agricultural university in Faizabad was renamed Narendra Dev University of Agriculture and Technology, reflecting his contributions to education and socialist movements.

12. Who formed Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha?

(A) Swami Sahajanand. Saraswati

(B) Ram Sundar Singh

(D) Ramanand Mishra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
He was instrumental in forming the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha, which aimed to address the grievances of farmers and promote their rights.

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati and the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha

Formation: The Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) was established by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1929.
Purpose: It aimed to address the grievances of farmers and advocate for their rights.

Key Points About the Kisan Sabha Movement

All India Kisan Sabha: This national peasant front was formed in 1936 at the Indian National Congress (INC) Lucknow Session as the All India Kisan Congress.
Leadership: Sahajanand Saraswati was a pioneer of the Kisan Sabha movement and became the first President of the All India Kisan Sabha, with N.G. Ranga serving as the secretary.

Objectives of BPKS

Abolish Zamindari System: A primary goal was to eliminate the feudal zamindari system.
Reduce Land Revenue: Advocated for lower land taxes.
Institutionalize Credit: Sought to establish better access to credit for farmers.

Tensions with the INC

Congress Connection: Many Congress leaders were zamindars, leading to a lack of strong opposition against the zamindari system, which disappointed Kisan Sabha members.
Response to Quit India Movement: In 1942, when Gandhi called for the Quit India Movement, Sahajanand and other peasant leaders urged farmers to refrain from supporting Gandhi or the INC.

Aftermath

CPI Involvement: In May 1942, the Communist Party of India (CPI) took over the All India Kisan Sabha.
Division of Kisan Sabha: After the CPI split in 1964, the Kisan Sabha was also divided into two factions: All India Kisan Sabha (CPI) and All India Kisan Sabha (CPI-M; Akhil Bhartiya Kisan Sabha).

13. Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year?

(A) 1601

(B) 1632

(D) 1651

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The Dutch East India Company (VOC) established its factory in Patna in (B) 1632, located at what is now known as the Patna Collectorate.

Overview of the Dutch East India Company

Foundation: Established in March 1602 by a charter from the Dutch parliament, the VOC was empowered to wage wars, settle treaties, acquire territories, and build fortresses.
Objective: The primary goal was to eliminate Portuguese and British trade dominance in India and Southeast Asia.

Key Establishments in India

First Factory: The VOC set up its first factory in Masulipatnam in 1605, followed by others in: Pulicat (1610), Surat (1616), Bimilipatam (1641), Karikal (1645) and Chinsura (1653).
Additional factories in Kasimbazar, Baranagore, Patna, Balasore, Negapatam, and Cochin.

Peak and Decline

Climax: The company reached its height in 1669, becoming the most prosperous private company in the world, with 150 merchant ships, 40 warships, 50,000 employees, and an army of 10,000 soldiers.
Significant Event: The Battle of Colachel in 1741 marked a major defeat for the Dutch against the Travancore army, signaling the beginning of the decline of Dutch power in India.
Dissolution: Due to corruption and financial troubles, the Dutch East India Company was formally dissolved in 1800.

14. Who established Swaraj Dal in Bihar?

(A) Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Ramlal Shah

(D) Sachindra Nath Sanyal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The Swaraj Dal in Bihar was led by (A) Shri Krishna Singh in 1923.
The Swaraj Party, which the Swaraj Dal is associated with, was established by C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru on January 1, 1923.

Key Points About the Swarajist Movement

Formation Background: The Swaraj Party emerged after significant events such as the retreat of the Non-Cooperation Movement, the Government of India Act of 1919, and the upcoming 1923 elections.
Congress Session: At the Gaya session of the Congress in 1922, C. R. Das proposed entering the legislatures, but this was defeated, leading him and other leaders to break away and form the Swaraj Party.
Leadership: Narayan Prasad served as the first Chairman, and Abdul Bari was the first Secretary of the Swaraj Party.
Significant Role: Swarajist Vithalbhai Patel became the Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925.
Decline: The death of C. R. Das in 1925 significantly weakened the party’s influence.

15. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is

(A) Chakravarti

(B) Priyadarshi

(D) Dharmakirti

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Priyadarshi. Ashoka is generally referred to as “Priyadarshi” in his inscriptions.

Key Points About Ashoka’s Inscriptions

Honorific Title: Ashoka is referred to as Priyadarshi in his inscriptions, meaning “He who regards others with kindness.”
This title is often used alongside Devanampriya, which translates to “beloved of the Gods.”

Additional Information

Reign: Ashoka ruled over Magadha from 273 BC to 232 BC.
Inscriptions: His inscriptions, known as the Edicts of Ashoka, comprise a collection of 33 inscriptions found on pillars, rocks, and cave walls, created during his reign from 272 to 231 BC.
Languages Used: The inscriptions were written in Prakrit, Greek, and Aramaic, utilizing non-standardized and archaic forms of Prakrit.
Decipherment: The edicts were deciphered by British archaeologist James Prinsep.
Major Themes: The inscriptions address Ashoka’s conversion to Buddhism, his efforts to promote Buddhism, moral and religious precepts, and initiatives for social and animal welfare.

16. Who among the following is known for his work on medicine during the Gupta period?

(A) Sushruta

(B) Saumilla

(D) Shaunaka

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Sushruta. He is renowned for his work on medicine during the Gupta period, particularly for his contributions to surgery and the foundational text known as the Sushruta Samhita.
The Gupta period (320 AD – 550 AD) is often considered the golden age of India, notable for advancements in art, literature, astronomy, and medical science.

Sushruta’s Significance

Pioneer of Surgery: Sushruta is recognized as the first Indian surgeon and is known for his foundational contributions to medicine.
Sushruta Samhita: This ancient Sanskrit text focuses on surgery and is attributed to Sushruta, a physician from the 6th century BCE. However, the text as preserved dates to the 3rd or 4th century CE.
Foundational Text of Ayurveda: The Sushruta Samhita is one of the three foundational texts of Ayurveda, which is India’s traditional system of medicine.

Content of the Sushruta Samhita:

The text comprises 186 chapters.
It describes 1,120 illnesses, 700 medicinal plants, 64 preparations from mineral sources, and 57 preparations based on animal sources.

17. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written from right to left?

(A) Brahmi

(B) Sharada

(D) Nandanagari

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Kharosthi. This ancient Indian script was written from right to left.

Key Points About Kharosthi Script

Alternate Name: It is also known as the Indo-Bactrian script.
Language Representation: Kharosthi was used to represent a form of Prakrit, a Middle Indic Indo-Aryan language.
Geographic Distribution: The script had a wide distribution, primarily found in:
Northern Pakistan
Eastern Afghanistan
Northwest India
Central Asia
Cultural Significance: Kharosthi was prominent in the Gandhara culture of Northwestern India and is sometimes referred to as the Gandhari Script.
Inscriptions: Inscriptions in Kharosthi include Buddhist texts, discovered on clay artifacts in present-day Afghanistan and Pakistan.
Historical Context: While the Brahmi script dominated most of India, Kharosthi remained prevalent in its region, with most inscriptions between 200 BCE and 200 CE written in this script.
Trade Influence: Kharosthi spread to various areas in Central Asia, facilitated by the flourishing commerce along the Silk Road.

18. Which one of the following ports was in use for the north Indian trade during the Gupta period?

(A) Kalyan

(B) Tamralipti

(D) Cambay

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Tamralipti. This port was significant for trade in North India during the Gupta period.
The Gupta Empire maintained strong international and internal trade despite a decline in Roman trade.
Trade routes included riverine navigation on major rivers such as the Ganges, Brahmaputra, Narmada, and Krishna.

Tamralipti’s Role:

Control of Trade: Tamralipti was a key port that controlled north Indian trade during the Gupta period.
Geographical Significance: Located near the Rupnarayana River, it served as a crucial exit point for the Mauryan trade route to the south and southeast.

Historical Context:

Tamralipti is associated with the ancient city resembling Tamluk in modern-day India and was one of the most significant urban centers for trade in early historic India.
It facilitated trade along the Silk Road with China and the Uttarapatha, the main trade route into the Middle East and Europe.

Major Ports: Besides Tamralipti, other significant ports included Broach, Kalyan, and Cambay.

Broach was known for trading spices, pearls, gold, and horses.

19. Mughal painting reached its zenith under

(A) Jahangir

(B) Humayun

(D) Akbar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Jahangir. Mughal painting reached its zenith during his reign, known for its refinement and artistic achievements.

Key Points About Mughal Painting under Jahangir

Zenith of Mughal Painting: Mughal painting reached its peak during the reign of Jahangir.
Naturalism: Jahangir was a naturalist who emphasized the depiction of flora and fauna, including birds, animals, trees, and flowers. He sought to bring a sense of realism and naturalism to portrait painting.
Notable Artists: One of the most famous artists of his time was Ustad Mansoor, known for his exquisite illustrations.
Literary Works: During Jahangir’s reign, the animal fable Ayar-i-Danish (Touchstone of Knowledge) was illustrated, showcasing the artistic accomplishments of the period.

Additional Information

Shah Jahan:

His reign saw a shift in the style of Mughal paintings, favoring artificial elements over naturalism.
Influenced by European art, he aimed for a more unnatural stillness and increased the use of gold and silver in artworks.

Akbar:

Akbar’s era featured the illustrated manuscript Tutinama (Tale of a Parrot) and he established an artistic studio called Tasvir Khana.
He employed renowned painters like Daswant, Basawan, and Kesu.

Humayun:

A great patron of the arts, Humayun had an interest in painting and monumental architecture.
He brought in notable painters like Abdus Samad and Mir Sayyid Ali to enhance Mughal artistic traditions.

20. In medieval India, why was Mansabdari system introduced?

(A) For revenue collection

(B) Facilitating recruitment to the army

(D) Ensuring clean administration

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Facilitating recruitment to the army.

Key Points About the Mansabdari System

Introduction: The Mansabdari system was established by Akbar for military administration and territorial command to maintain the Mughal army.
Mongolian Influence: This system was inspired by similar practices in Mongolia, reflecting the need for organized military structure.
Territorial Commands: Both Hindu and Muslim officers were assigned territorial commands in exchange for military service, creating a diverse military leadership.
Zats and Sawars:
Zat: Represents the number of troops a mansabdar was expected to maintain.
Sawar: Refers to the actual number of horses under a mansabdar’s command.
Rankings: Mansabdars were ranked in increments (e.g., 10, 20, 100, 1000), with higher ranks reflecting larger troop responsibilities.
Notable Mansabdars: Figures like Mansingh and Mirza Aziz Koka held ranks of 7000 zats, while Bhagwan Das was a notable mansabdar with 5000 zats, highlighting the privileged positions within the system.

21. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is not matched?

(A) Bhils-Gujarat

(B) Gaddis-Himachal Pradesh

(D) Todas-Kerala

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Bhils-Gujarat: Bhils are indeed found in Gujarat.
Gaddis-Himachal Pradesh: Gaddis are a tribal community in Himachal Pradesh.
Kotas-Tamil Nadu: Kotas are a scheduled tribe in Tamil Nadu.
Todas-Kerala: Todas are actually a tribal community in Tamil Nadu, not Kerala.

Thus, the pair (D) Todas-Kerala is incorrectly matched.

About the Todas

Location: The Todas are a pastoral tribe residing in the Nīlgiri Hills of southern India.
Population: Their numbers were approximately 800 in the early 1960s, but they have been experiencing population growth due to improved health facilities.
Lifestyle: The Todas lead a community-based lifestyle, primarily revolving around grasslands known as sholas and herding buffalo.
Language: The Toda language is part of the Dravidian family and diverged from Tamil-Malayalam around the 3rd century B.C..
Cultural Practices: Traditionally, they utilize the sholas for various purposes, including building materials, shelter for their buffaloes, and sites for ritual activities. Their living quarters, known as munds, are located near these grasslands, but not within them.

22. Which one of the following industrial/economic corridors of India is being developed in collaboration with Japan?

(A) Chennai-Vizag

(B) Mumbai-Bengaluru

(D) Amritsar-Kolkata

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Delhi-Mumbai.

The Delhi–Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC) is a significant industrial development initiative aimed at enhancing economic connectivity between India’s capital, Delhi, and its financial hub, Mumbai.
The project was initiated following a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) signed between the Government of India and the Government of Japan in December 2006.

Significance of Industrial Corridor

Industrial corridors recognize the interdependence of various economic sectors, facilitating integration between industry and infrastructure. This synergy leads to overall economic and social development, enhancing productivity and quality of life in the regions they serve.
These corridors are designed to create world-class infrastructure, including high-speed transportation networks. This infrastructure supports efficient movement of goods and people, significantly boosting trade and commerce.
A key objective of industrial corridors is to establish clusters of manufacturing and other industries. This initiative promotes the development of smart and sustainable cities, leveraging high connectivity to foster economic growth.
To maximize the economic and financial benefits of these corridors, attracting potential investors is essential. By setting up manufacturing units in designated areas called National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NMIZs), these corridors aim to stimulate investment and job creation.

23. Which one of the following districts does not have Dharwar geological formations?

(A) Munger

(B) Rohtas

(D) Nawada

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is Rohtas.

Rohtas district does not have Dharwar geological formations.

About Dharwar Geology

The formation dates back from 4 billion to 1 billion years ago.
It consists of highly metamorphosed sedimentary rocks, formed through the metamorphosis of Archaean gneisses and schists.
These are considered the oldest metamorphosed rocks.
Economically significant, they contain valuable minerals such as high-grade iron ore, manganese, copper, lead, and gold.
The Dharwar geological formations are predominantly found in Dharwar district, Karnataka.
Munger, Jamui, and Nawada districts are associated with these geological formations.

24. The number of districts situated on the bank of Ganga river in Bihar State is

(A) 21

(B) 17

(D) 6

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The number of districts situated on the banks of the Ganga River in Bihar is (C) 12.
These districts are: Buxar, Bhojpur, Saran, Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur, Begusarai, Lakhisarai, Khagaria, Munger, Bhagalpur and Katihar.

About the Ganga River:

Origin: The Ganga rises from the Gangotri glacier near Gomukh in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand.
Length: The total length of the Ganga is approximately 2,525 km.

Geographical Boundaries:

Bounded by the Himalayas to the north
The Aravalli range to the west
The Vindhyas and Chhotanagpur plateau to the south
The Brahmaputra Ridge to the east

Tributaries

Left Tributaries: Karnali, Mahakali, Gandak, Kosi, Ramganga, Ghagra, Mahananda, etc.
Right Tributaries: Yamuna, Son, Chambal.

25. Which one of the following wildlife sanctuaries is situated in Munger district of Bihar?

(A) Valmiki

(B) Rajgir

(D) Gautam Buddha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Bhimbandh.

Key Points:

Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Munger district of Bihar.
It is known for its diverse flora and fauna and is part of the region’s efforts to conserve wildlife.
The sanctuary offers a habitat for various species, including several that are endangered.

Other Options

Valmiki: Located in Bihar but primarily in the West Champaran district.
Rajgir: Rajgir wildlife sanctuary is located in the Nalanda district of Bihar.
Rajgir wildlife sanctuary is also known as Pant wildlife sanctuary.
Gautam Buddha: It is located in the Gaya district of Bihar and Kodarma district of Jharkhand.

26. The district of Bihar which has recorded the highest sex ratio as per the 2011 Census is

(A) Siwan

(B) Gopalganj

(D) Kishanganj

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (B) Gopalganj.

Important Points

Gopalganj recorded the highest sex ratio in Bihar as per the 2011 Census, with 1,015 females for every 1,000 males.
In contrast, Bhagalpur and Munger districts had the lowest sex ratios, at 879 females per 1,000 males.
According to the 2011 Census, Bihar’s total population was approximately 103.8 million, an increase from 82.99 million in 2001.
The male population was around 54.2 million, while the female population stood at about 49.6 million.
The overall sex ratio in Bihar was 918 females per 1,000 males, showing a slight decline from 921 in 2001.
The child sex ratio improved to 935 per 1,000 males, up from 908 in the previous census.
The literacy rate in Bihar also increased to 63.82%, with male literacy at 73.39% and female literacy at 53.33%.

27. Among the following districts, which one has larger area under dense deciduous forest cover?

(A) Paschim Champaran

(B) Gaya

(D) Nawada

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

1. Paschim Champaran has the largest area under dense deciduous forest cover.

Key Points

Forest Cover in Bihar: The total forest area is 7,299 sq km, accounting for 7.75% of the state’s geographical area.
Forest Density: Bihar has 332 sq km of very dense forest, 3,260 sq km of moderately dense forest, and 3,707 sq km of open forest.
Paschim Champaran: This district features significant moist deciduous forests, particularly in the foothills of the Someshwar and Dun mountain ranges.
Kaimur, Jamui, and Nawada: While these districts have considerable forest cover, Paschim Champaran excels in dense deciduous forests.

Additional Information about Deciduous Forests

Types: Tropical deciduous forests are classified into moist and dry types based on rainfall.
Moist Deciduous Forests: Found in areas with 100-200 cm of rainfall, with trees like teak, sal, and mahua.
Dry Deciduous Forests: Found in regions receiving 70-100 cm of rainfall, with species like tendu and palas.
Leaf Shedding: Trees in deciduous forests shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water.

28. The district of Bihar which has a longer length of Ganga river is

(A) Bhagalpur

(8) Katihar

(D) Begusarai

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The district of Bihar with the longest stretch of the Ganga river is indeed (C) Patna.

Key Points

Length: The total length of the Ganga River in Patna district is approximately 99 kilometers.
Waterfront Changes: Historically, the waterfront was around 20 kilometers, but it has since changed as the river has moved away from the city.

29. Which district of Bihar has recorded the highest density of population (per sq. km) as per the 2011 Census?

(A) sheohar

(B) Vaishali

(D) Darbhanga

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The district of Bihar that recorded the highest density of population (per sq. km) as per the 2011 Census is (A) Sheohar.
Bihar’s overall density is 1,102 per square kilometer, higher than the national average of 382.

Higher Density Districts:

Sheohar: 1,882 persons/sq km
Patna: 1,823 persons/sq km
Darbhanga: 1,728 persons/sq km
Vaishali: 1,717 persons/sq km

Lowest Density Districts:

Kaimur: 488 persons/sq km
Jamui: 568 persons/sq km
Banka: 674 persons/sq km
Pashchim Champaran: 753 persons/sq km

30. Which one of the following countries is the largest country without borders in terms of geographical area?

(A) New Zealand

(B) Philippines

(D) Cuba

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

Geographical Area: Japan is the largest country without land borders, covering approximately 377,900 square kilometers.
Location: It is an island nation in East Asia, located in the Pacific Ocean.
Islands: Japan consists of over 6,000 islands, with the main ones being Honshū, Hokkaidō, Kyūshū, and Shikoku.
Maritime Borders: Japan shares maritime boundaries with countries like China, North Korea, South Korea, the Philippines, and Russia.
Proximity: Russia and South Korea are the closest countries to Japan.

31. The country which has the longest north-south (latitudinal) extension of its territory is

(A) Russia

(B) Chile

(D) Brazil

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is Chile.

Key Points

Length: Chile is the longest country in the world from north to south, measuring approximately 2,647 miles (4,300 kilometers).
Geographical Span: It extends through 38 degrees of latitude, from 17 degrees south to Cape Horn at 56 degrees south.
Location: Situated on the western seaboard of South America, Chile is bordered by Peru and Bolivia to the north, Argentina to the east, and the Pacific Ocean to the west.
Diverse Geography: The country’s landscape varies greatly, featuring deserts, mountains, and coastal regions.
Atacama Desert: Home to the Atacama Desert, the driest nonpolar desert on Earth, which stretches across about 600 miles (1,000 kilometers).

32. Which one of the following countries has the highest number of islands?

(A) Philippines

(B) Indonesia

(D) Cuba

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Indonesia is indeed noted for having approximately 18,307 islands according to surveys, making it the country with the most islands globally.

So, the answer is (B) Indonesia

The islands of Indonesia are grouped into several regions:

Greater Sunda Islands: Includes major islands such as Sumatra, Java, Borneo (Kalimantan), and Sulawesi (Celebes).
Lesser Sunda Islands: Features islands like Bali and those extending eastward through Timor and the Moluccas (Maluku).
Borders: Indonesia shares land borders with Malaysia on the island of Borneo and Papua New Guinea on New Guinea.
Strait of Malacca: This crucial waterway plays a significant role in maritime trade, connecting the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean.

Other options

Philippines: The Philippines is also an archipelago with around 7,641 islands but has fewer than Indonesia.
Maldives: The Maldives consists of around 1,192 coral islands but is much smaller in comparison to both Indonesia and the Philippines.
Cuba: Cuba has a significantly smaller number of islands, primarily consisting of the main island and a few smaller ones.

33. Among the following countries, which one is the largest producer of saffron in the world?

(A) Spain

(B) Greece

(D) Iran

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

Iran is the world’s largest producer of saffron, accounting for over 90% of the world’s saffron production.

So, the answer is (D) Iran

The second largest producer of saffron, with Jammu and Kashmir being the largest saffron-producing region in the country.

About saffron

Saffron is a highly prized spice derived from the flower of Crocus sativus, commonly known as the saffron crocus.

Origin and Cultivation

Flowers: The saffron spice comes from the stigmas (the female reproductive part) of the saffron crocus flower, which blooms in the fall.
Cultivation Regions: Major producers include Iran, India (especially Kashmir), Spain, and Greece. Iran is the largest producer, accounting for about 90% of the world’s supply.
Harvesting: Saffron is labor-intensive to harvest, requiring hand-picking of the delicate stigmas. It takes thousands of flowers to produce just a small amount of saffron.
Uses
Culinary: Saffron is used to flavor and color dishes such as risottos, paellas, and various desserts. It’s known for its unique, earthy flavor and golden-yellow hue.
Medicinal: Saffron has been traditionally used in herbal medicine for its potential health benefits, which include antioxidant properties, mood enhancement, and anti-inflammatory effects.
Economic Value: Saffron is one of the most expensive spices by weight, often priced higher than gold due to its labor-intensive harvesting process and the large number of flowers required to produce a small quantity of spice.
Cultural Significance: Saffron holds cultural importance in various cuisines and is often associated with luxury and special occasions.

34. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of uranium in the world?

(A) Kazakhstan

(B) Canada

(D) France

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

Kazakhstan is the world’s largest producer of uranium.
In 2022, Kazakhstan produced 43% of the world’s uranium supply from mines, followed by Canada (15%) and Namibia (11%).
Kazakhstan has been an important source of uranium for more than 50 years and became the world’s largest uranium producer in 2009.

So, the answer is (A) Kazakhstan

Canada and Australia are also major producers, with Canada historically being a leading uranium producer, especially from high-grade deposits.

35. The hills situated closer to Kanyakumari are

(A) Anaimalai Hills

(B) Nilgiri Hills

(D) Shevaroy Hills

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Cardamom Hills.

Key Points

The Cardamom Hills are located in the Western Ghats and are situated closer to Kanyakumari in the southern part of India.
These hills are known for their rich biodiversity and are a significant area for cardamom cultivation.
Anaimalai Hills and Nilgiri Hills are also part of the Western Ghats but are located further north compared to the Cardamom Hills.
Shevaroy Hills are in the Salem district of Tamil Nadu, which is also not as close to Kanyakumari.

36. Among the following tributaries, which one is the part of Ganga. river basin?

(A) Sankh

(B) North Koel

(D) Barakar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

The North Koel River is a tributary of the Ganga River basin.

So, the answer is (B) North Koel

The Ganga River has many tributaries, including the Alaknanda, Ramganga, Kali, Yamuna, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi, and Sone.

About North Koel River

The North Koel River originates on the Ranchi plateau in Jharkhand.
It flows through the northern part of Betla National Park and joins the Son River, a tributary of the Ganga, a few miles northwest of Haidarnagar in Jharkhand.
The main tributaries of the North Koel River are the Auranga and the Amanat.
The Mandal Dam Project is being built on the North Koel River to provide irrigation and electricity to drought-prone areas in Jharkhand and Bihar.

37. Which one of the following hills does not have tea plantations?

(A) Kanan Devan

(B) Nilgiri

(D) Girnar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Girnar.

Key Points

Kanan Devan: Located in Kerala, known for its tea plantations.
Nilgiri: In Tamil Nadu, famous for its tea estates.
Darjeeling: Renowned for its high-quality tea plantations in West Bengal.
Girnar: Located in Gujarat, it does not have tea plantations.

38. In India, the State with the under dense largest area deciduous forest cover is

(A) Odisha

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Chhattisgarh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh has the largest area (76,013 km²) of dense deciduous forest cover in India.

So, the answer is(C) Madhya Pradesh

Other states with large areas of forest cover include:

Arunachal Pradesh: 67,777 km²
Chhattisgarh: 55,863 km²
Orissa: 48,374 km²
Maharashtra: 47,476 km²

Deciduous forests are forests where the majority of trees lose their leaves in the fall. Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread forests in India and are known as Monsoon Forests.

39. Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following regions?

(A) Gulf of Cambay

(B) Gulf of Mannar

(D) Lakshadweep and Minicoy Island

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Gulf of Cambay.

Key Points

Coral reefs thrive in warm, shallow waters, typically found in areas with clear water and abundant sunlight.
The Gulf of Cambay (Kutch) is not known for coral reefs, while the other options—Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kachchh, and the Lakshadweep and Minicoy Islands—are regions where coral reefs are present.

40. Among the following religious groups, which one has recorded the highest percentage of literacy rate as per the 2011 Census?

(A) Christians

(B) Hindus

(D) Jains

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘D’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (D) Jains.

According to the 2011 Census, Jains had the highest literacy rate among religious groups in India.

Jains: 97.4% of males and 90.6% of females were literate
Muslims: Nearly 43% of the population was illiterate
Christians: 80.3% literate
Buddhists: 72.7% literate

41. Which one of the following Indian States has the largest number of members in its State Legislature?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Meghalaya

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Explanation:

Himachal Pradesh has the largest number of members in its State Legislature, with a total of 68 seats in the Legislative Assembly.

So, the answer is (B) Himachal Pradesh

The state legislature is governed by Articles 168 to 212 of the Constitution, which cover various aspects such as organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, and powers.

Other options

The Arunachal Pradesh and the Manipur Legislative Assembly have 60 seats each.
The Meghalaya Legislative Assembly has also 60 seats, with 50 seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.

42. In the Indian Order of Precedence, who amongst the following comes first?

(A) The Chairman of UPSC

(B) The Chief Election Commissioner

(D) The Chief Justice of High Court

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (E) None of the above.

Priority and Posts:

President
Vice President
Prime Minister
Governors of States
Former Presidents

Key Points

Order of Precedence: This is a list that ranks officials and authorities by their position within the Government of India.
Purpose: It is intended for state and ceremonial occasions and does not apply to the routine operations of the government.
Establishment: The order is established by the President of India and maintained by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Additional Information:

The Chairman of the UPSC, Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), and Chief Justice of High Court are all ranked equally in the Order of Precedence.

43. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding parliamentary form of Government?

(A) The Legislature is responsible to Judiciary

(B) The Legislature is responsible to Executive

(D) The President is responsible to Judiciary

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

In a parliamentary form of government, the Legislature is responsible to the Executive, specifically the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. This means that the Executive derives its legitimacy from the Legislature and is accountable to it.
The Legislature and the Executive are not independent; rather, the Executive is drawn from the Legislature.
The President is not responsible to the Judiciary; instead, the President has a ceremonial role and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

So, none of the statements provided correctly represent the parliamentary form of government.

44. Which of the following was constituted under the Panchayati Raj system?

(A) Khap Panchayat

(B) Caste Panchayat

(D) Jan Panchayat

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Gram Panchayat.

Key Points

Gram Panchayat: This is the basic unit of the Panchayati Raj system in India, responsible for local governance at the village level. It is constituted under the Panchayati Raj Act.
Khap Panchayat: Typically informal councils based on caste or community, not part of the formal Panchayati Raj system.
Caste Panchayat: Similar to Khap Panchayats, these are also informal and based on caste, not officially recognized within the Panchayati Raj framework.
Jan Panchayat: Generally refers to people’s councils but may not be formally recognized in the context of the Panchayati Raj system.

45. Who amongst the following is a land record officer?

(A) Patwari

(B) Lambardar

(D) Zaildar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) Patwari.

Key Points

Patwari: A land record officer responsible for maintaining land records, collecting land revenue, and assisting in land administration at the village level.
Lambardar: A village headman who collects land revenue but is not primarily a land record officer.
Zamindar: Traditionally a landowner or landlord, not specifically a land record officer.
Zaildar: An officer who supervises the work of Patwaris and manages land revenue collection at a higher level.

Thus, the Patwari is specifically designated as the land record officer.

46. Which one of the following characteristics is not true for unitary form of Government?

(A) Swift decision

(B) Flexible

(D) Uniformity of laws

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Ideal for large countries.

Key Points

Unitary Form of Government: In this system, power is concentrated in a central authority, and any administrative divisions derive their powers from the central government.

Characteristics

Swift decision: True, as decision-making is faster with a centralized authority.
Flexible: True, it can adapt policies easily without multiple layers of government.
Uniformity of laws: True, laws are consistent across the entire state.
Ideal for large countries: Not true, as unitary systems are generally more suited for smaller or more homogeneous nations. Large countries often benefit from a federal system to manage diverse regional needs.

Thus, the characteristic that is not true for a unitary form of government is (C) Ideal for large countries.

47. What is the objective of Community Development Programmes?

(A) Providing educational facilities

(B) Improving standards of living

(D) Helping villages in planning

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (E) More than one of the above.

Objectives of Community Development Programmes:

Providing educational facilities: Enhancing access to education.
Improving standards of living: Addressing health, nutrition, and economic conditions.
Political training: Empowering local leadership and governance.
Helping villages in planning: Involving communities in their development processes.

Additional Information

The Community Development Programme was launched on October 2, 1952.
By the end of the First Five-Year Plan, it was expanded to include many more villages, reaching nearly one out of every three villages in India.

48. Aam Admi party is a

(A) State party

(B) national party

(D) registered party

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

When the exam was conducted, Aam Aadmi Party was a state party.

So, the answer is(A) State party

It was founded in 2012 and has its roots in the anti-corruption movement.
AAP currently has the status of a national party as it won around 13% vote share and five seats in the upcoming 2023 Gujarat Legislative Assembly elections, making it a state-level party in Delhi, Goa, Punjab and Gujarat.

49. Which one of the following constitutional remedies is also known as ‘postmortem?

(A) Prohibition

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo warranto

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (C) Certiorari.

[The Commission has considered option (D) Quo warranto as correct answer.]

Key Points

Certiorari is a constitutional remedy that is often referred to as “postmortem” because it is used to review and quash the decisions of lower courts or tribunals after the fact, essentially examining the legality of their actions.
It is part of the wider framework of judicial review under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

Prohibition prevents lower courts from exceeding their jurisdiction.
Mandamus is a command to a lower court or government authority to perform a duty.
Quo warranto inquires into the legality of a person holding a public office.

50. What is the version of the machine VVPAT used for voting in India?

(A) M1

(B) Z1

(D) 23

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The correct version of VVPAT used in India is indeed M3.

Key Points on VVPAT and EVMs

VVPAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail) enhances the transparency of the voting process by allowing voters to verify their votes before they are recorded electronically.
The technology was developed by the Electronics Corporation of India and Bharat Electronics, and EVMs were gradually implemented in Indian elections from 1998 to 2001.
Since 2014, EVMs with VVPAT have been used in all general and state assembly elections in India, helping to ensure the integrity of the electoral process.

Additional Information

The VVPAT system serves as a safeguard against electoral fraud and provides an independent means for auditing electronic votes.

51. In the fiscal year 2018-19, the total foreign exchange reserves are

(A) 34,55,882 crores

(B) 30,55,882 crores

(D) 28,55,882 crores

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (E) None of the above / More than one of the above.

[However, the Commission has considered option (D) 28,55,882 crores as the correct answer in its answer key.]

Key Points

According to the Economic Survey 2018-19, India’s foreign exchange reserves had surpassed $400 billion.
As of August 30, 2024, India’s forex reserves stood at $6,83,987 million, according to the Reserve Bank of India.
Foreign exchange reserves refer to the foreign currencies held by a country’s central bank (the Reserve Bank of India for India).
These reserves are also known as foreign currency reserves.
Exporters deposit foreign currency into local banks, which then transfer the currency to the central bank.
A current account deficit occurs when the money flowing out on imports exceeds the money coming in from exports, which can impact the foreign exchange reserves.

52. Which one of the following is not a source of direct finance?

(A) NABARD

(B) Regional Rural Bank

(D) Allahabad Bank

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘E’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (E) None of the above/More than one of the above.

Key Points

All the options listed (NABARD, Regional Rural Bank, State Bank of India, Allahabad Bank) are sources of direct finance.
Direct finance refers to the situation where borrowers obtain funds directly from the financial market without intermediaries.
Institutions like NABARD and various banks directly provide loans and financial assistance to borrowers, including individuals and businesses.

53. What is the full form of EPCG?

(A) Export Promotion Consumer Goods

(B) Exchange Programme for Consumer Goods

(D) Expert Programme for Credit Generation

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The full form of EPCG is Export Promotion Capital Goods.

So, the correct answer is (C) Export Promotion Capital Goods

The EPCG scheme is an export promotion scheme that allows exporters to import capital goods at a reduced customs duty.
The scheme’s objectives include:
Facilitating the import of capital goods for the production of quality goods and services
Enhancing India’s manufacturing competitiveness
The EPCG scheme was introduced on April 1, 1992. Exporters who receive a license under the scheme must fulfill an export obligation.

54. In Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Scheme, cach subscriber shall receive the minimum assured pension of ________ per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

(A) 3,500

(B) 2,000

(D) 1,500

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘C’.

Explanation:

The minimum assured pension that a subscriber receives under the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) scheme is Rs 3,000 per month after they turn 60 years old.

So, the correct answer is (C) 3,000

Here are some other features of the PM-SYM scheme

Contributions: The subscriber contributes a monthly amount between Rs 55 and Rs 200, depending on their age when they join the scheme. The central government matches the subscriber’s contribution.
Eligibility: To be eligible, workers must be unorganized, between the ages of 18 and 40, and have a monthly income of Rs 15,000 or less. They must also not be income tax payers or covered by any statutory social security schemes.
Enrollment: Subscribers can enroll at Common Services Centres, LIC branch offices, ESIC/EPFO offices, and Labour offices.
Family pension: If a beneficiary dies, their spouse receives 50% of their monthly pension as a family pension.

55. Who determines the minimum support price in India?

(A) The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

(B) The Agriculture Ministry

(D) NABARD

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘A’.

Explanation:

The correct answer is (A) The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.

Key Points

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is responsible for determining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for various crops.
The MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to ensure farmers receive a minimum profit for their harvest.

56. Hindu growth rate is related to

(A) Money

(B) GDP

(D) GNP

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Correct answer is option ‘B’.

Solved BPSC Previous Year Questions For Prelims From 65th–69th BPSC

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Solved BPSC Previous Year Questions
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