Daily Current Affairs UPSC: News Based MCQs Quiz | 2nd June 2025

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: The fiscal deficit target for 2025-26 is set at 4.4% of GDP, which is achievable given the fiscal consolidation achieved in previous years.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “Last year’s fiscal gap was under 4.8% and this year’s 4.4% goal is achievable.” This aligns with the fiscal deficit target for FY26 being set at 4.4% of GDP, as also corroborated by other sources, such as Reuters, which notes the government’s target of 4.8% for FY25 and 4.4% for FY26. The article further highlights the government’s grip on fiscal consolidation through public expenditure, suggesting that prior efforts make the 4.4% target feasible. Additional sources, like EY, confirm a projected fiscal deficit reduction from 4.8% in FY25 to 4.4% in FY26, supported by fiscal discipline.
• Statement 2: India’s economic recovery post-COVID has relied heavily on public expenditure, but private investment and consumption remain untested for sustaining growth without state support.
  This statement is correct. The article explicitly notes: “Last year’s rate of GDP growth dropped below the path demanded by Viksit Bharat, but the second half’s acceleration reveals a grip on its gear-stick held by the government through public expenditure. How long, though, will state support last?” This indicates that India’s post-COVID recovery has been driven significantly by public expenditure, with uncertainty about the sustainability of growth without continued state support. The article implies that private investment and consumption have not yet been fully tested as independent drivers of growth, aligning with concerns about sluggish private investment in other sources, such as EY’s analysis.
• Statement 3: The adoption of public debt as the primary fiscal gauge after 2025-26 aims to replace the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act’s 3% fiscal deficit target.
  This statement is incorrect. The article mentions: “After that, public debt will be adopted as the official gauge to constrain risky over-spending.” It also notes that the FRBM law needs reworking, and “If inflation stays subdued at around 4%, the central bank’s aim, even with the fiscal deficit exceeding the FRBM’s 3% cap, it’ll be a relief.” This suggests a shift toward using the debt-to-GDP ratio as a key fiscal metric starting FY26-27, as confirmed by Reuters, which states the government plans to target a debt-to-GDP ratio of 50% by 2031. However, there is no explicit indication that this shift aims to entirely replace the FRBM’s 3% fiscal deficit target. Instead, the focus on debt-to-GDP is described as a complementary and more flexible standard to enhance fiscal transparency, while the fiscal deficit target remains part of the broader fiscal framework, as per the FRBM Act’s amended goals.
• Statement 4: Sustained high food inflation poses a significant risk to India’s price stability, potentially undermining the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) 4% inflation target.
  This statement is correct. The article does not directly mention food inflation but notes: “If inflation stays subdued at around 4%, the central bank’s aim, it’ll be a relief.” This implies that maintaining inflation at the RBI’s 4% target is a challenge, and other sources highlight food inflation as a key risk. For instance, the Policy Circle article notes that inflation stayed within the RBI’s 2-6% range, partly due to government intervention ensuring food supply, but core inflation is inching upward. The Economic Survey 2024-25 also mentions that easing food inflation supports growth, but geopolitical and commodity price shocks pose risks. Sustained high food inflation, a persistent issue in India, could destabilize prices and challenge the RBI’s target, as it contributes significantly to overall inflation.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1, 2, and 4
• Incorrect statement: 3

Thus, the correct option is (a) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Source: https://www.livemint.com/opinion/online-views/india-economy-fiscal-policy-gdp-growth-public-expenditure-fiscal-deficit-public-debt-inflation-investment-consumption-11748791085629.html

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: India should grant more market access to American products such as apples, almonds, and pistachios as part of a bilateral trade agreement.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “India should grant more market access to American products that do not hurt Indian farmers—including apples, almonds and pistachios—for a mutually beneficial bilateral trading arrangement, according to a working paper by NITI Aayog.” The paper suggests lowering tariffs on these products, which either have low domestic production or do not compete directly with Indian produce due to differences in quality grades and seasons, to foster a balanced trade agreement.
• Statement 2: In return for granting market access to US products, India expects greater long-term market access for its shrimp, fish, rice, tea, coffee, and rubber.
  This statement is correct. The article explicitly notes: “In turn, India could benefit from greater long-term market access for its shrimp, fish, rice, tea, coffee and rubber, the paper said as the two countries tried to wrap up a bilateral trade agreement.” This reflects the ‘give and take’ approach advocated by the NITI Aayog paper to secure export markets for Indian agricultural products.
• Statement 3: The US currently imposes a 26% tariff on Indian shrimp imports.
  This statement is incorrect. The article clarifies that India “now faces a 26% tariff under the now-suspended reciprocal tariff plan, compared with the earlier zero-duty regime, potentially weakening India’s price advantage if the tariffs are not averted.” The key point is that the 26% tariff is part of a suspended reciprocal tariff plan announced on April 2, 2025, and not currently in effect due to a 90-day pause to facilitate trade negotiations. Thus, as of May 2025, the US does not impose a 26% tariff on Indian shrimp imports, making the statement factually inaccurate.
• Statement 4: India is the second-largest supplier of rice to the US, with Thailand being the largest.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “The report said rice is the second-most important commodity exported by India to the US, commanding 27% share in its rice imports after Thailand, which controls more than half of all US import of rice.” This confirms Thailand as the largest supplier and India as the second-largest supplier of rice to the US.

Thus, the correct option is (b) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Source: https://www.livemint.com/news/us-india-bilateral-trade-talks-tariff-farm-exports-niti-aayog-ramesh-chand-agri-export-economy-rice-shrimp-almonds-tea-11748752463014.html

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: The first batch of 17 women cadets graduated from the NDA in May 2025, marking a historic milestone for gender inclusivity in the Indian military.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “There were 17 women cadets in the 148th batch of the National Defence Academy (NDA) which graduated from the prestigious tri-services institute in Khadakwasla on Friday,” referring to May 30, 2025. It further describes this as “a watershed moment for the armed forces, one which opens a realistic path for women to reach the highest echelons of the Indian military in the coming decades,” confirming the historic significance for gender inclusivity.
• Statement 2: Women were granted Permanent Commission (PC) in the Indian Armed Forces starting in 1992 through the Women Special Entry Scheme (WSES).
  This statement is incorrect. The article clarifies that the WSES, introduced in 1992, inducted women into select non-combat streams as Short Service Commission (SSC) officers, not Permanent Commission officers. It states: “Permanent Commission (PC) remained out of reach for women until 2008, when women SSC officers in the Judge Advocate General department and the AEC became eligible.” Thus, PC for women began in 2008, not 1992.
• Statement 3: The NDA’s training for women cadets is conducted in a gender-neutral manner with minimal changes to the existing curriculum, ensuring their readiness for command roles.
  This statement is correct. The article notes: “When admitting its first women cadets in 2022, the NDA had said that training will be conducted in ‘an absolutely gender-neutral manner’ with ‘minimum changes to the existing curriculum’.” It further emphasizes that training activities are conducted jointly with male cadets, “keeping the cadets’ employability in mind, specifically the fact that women officers would be required to take up command roles in the future.” This confirms the gender-neutral approach and focus on preparing women for command roles.
• Statement 4: Women cadets at the NDA are not yet integrated into the academy’s 18 squadrons, limiting their ability to train alongside male cadets.
  This statement is incorrect. The article explicitly states: “Women cadets were initially provided separate accommodation on the NDA campus. But they have since been integrated into the existing 18 squadrons of the academy. This milestone was achieved earlier this year, during the sixth and final term of the first batch to include women.” This integration allows women to live and train alongside male cadets, participating in the same daily routines, thus contradicting the statement.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1 and 3
• Incorrect statements: 2 and 4

Thus, the correct option is (a) 1 and 3 only.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/how-nda-offers-women-path-to-become-service-chief-in-future-10040971/

Answer: (a) 1 only

Detailed Explanation

• Statement 1: The mango’s botanical name, Mangifera indica, is derived from Tamil and Malayalam words, and its global spread was facilitated by Portuguese traders who introduced grafting techniques to enhance its varieties.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “The Western world certainly learnt about the king of all fruits from us, and, hence, bestowed upon it the botanical name Mangifera indica. The name itself originates from the Tamil and Malayalam words – mankay, mannakay. The Portuguese came across it when they landed in India, and took it across the world, calling it manga.” Additionally, it notes: “By this time, Portuguese Jesuit priests had already reached Goa, tasted the local mangoes, and started grafting them to micro-engineer their flavour.” This confirms the etymology of Mangifera indica and the Portuguese role in spreading and enhancing mango varieties through grafting, as further supported by the introduction of grafting techniques that improved varieties like Alphonso.
• Statement 2: The Mughal emperor Babur considered the mango the finest fruit of Hindustan, leading to the establishment of the Lakhi Bagh orchard with one lakh mango trees under his rule.
  This statement is incorrect. The article clarifies Babur’s view: “The reason why this is unlikely is that Babur himself wrote that, although ‘the mango is the best fruit of Hindustan,’ and it is highly praised by some, ‘such praise outmatches it.’ For Babur, the Central Asian musk melon was the king of all fruits.” This indicates Babur did not consider the mango the finest fruit, preferring musk melons instead. Furthermore, the Lakhi Bagh orchard with one lakh mango trees was established under Akbar’s rule, not Babur’s, as the article states: “Akbar learnt about this and invited them to his court in Agra to train the royal horticulturists in the art of mango-tree grafting. A special mango orchard was set up in Lakhi Bagh, where one lakh trees were planted.” Thus, both claims in the statement are factually inaccurate.
• Statement 3: The distinctive aroma of mangoes is primarily due to Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) such as terpenes, lactones, esters, and aldehydes, with esters contributing to its creamy undertone.
  This statement is incorrect in part. The article explains: “The scent of a mango comes from a vast array of Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), most important of which are terpenes, lactones, esters, and aldehydes. The esters impart the sweet, tropical fruity scents, the lactones give it a creamy, earthy undertone, terpenes produce the slightly intoxicating, floral and pinelike notes, while aldehydes provide the grassy, and somewhat ‘spicy’ feel.” While it correctly identifies the VOCs responsible for the mango’s aroma (terpenes, lactones, esters, and aldehydes), it inaccurately attributes the creamy undertone to esters. The article specifies that lactones contribute the creamy, earthy undertone, while esters are responsible for sweet, tropical fruity scents. Despite this error, the statement’s core claim about VOCs is accurate, but the specific attribution of esters to the creamy undertone makes it incorrect as stated.

Clarification on Statement 3

Given the partial inaccuracy in Statement 3 (correct VOCs but incorrect attribution of esters to the creamy undertone), a strict interpretation might question its inclusion as a correct statement. The identification of VOCs as the source of the mango’s aroma is the primary intent. Since lactones, not esters, are responsible for the creamy undertone, Statement 3 is deemed incorrect due to this specific error, aligning with the rigorous standards of a difficult-level question.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1 only
• Incorrect statements: 2 and 3

Thus, the correct option is (a) 1 only

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/mango-history-india-mughals-pakistan-flavour-science-food-summer-10041655/

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

Let’s evaluate each statement based on the information provided in the Indian Express article and relevant web sources:

• Statement 1: The RBI restricts gold loans to only gold jewellery and bank-issued coins, prohibiting the use of gold bars, ingots, or bullion as collateral.
  This statement is correct. The article explicitly states: “The RBI has told banks that loans can be offered against gold jewellery and bank-issued coins, but not against gold bars, ingots, bullion, etc (called ‘primary gold’).” This restriction aims to standardize collateral types and reduce risks associated with non-standard gold forms, as part of the RBI’s effort to harmonize lending practices across regulated entities.
• Statement 2: The maximum Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio for consumption gold loans is capped at 75%, and the accrued interest must be included in the LTV calculation for bullet repayment loans.
  This statement is correct. The article confirms: “The RBI has said that the ‘maximum LTV ratio in respect of consumption gold loans shall not exceed 75 per cent of the value of gold’.” Additionally, related sources specify that for consumption-based bullet loans, accrued interest must be factored into the LTV calculation, effectively reducing the disbursed loan amount to ensure compliance with the 75% cap. This is a novel requirement aimed at enhancing risk management for both lenders and borrowers.
• Statement 3: The Finance Ministry has proposed exempting gold loans below Rs 2 lakh from the new rules to protect small borrowers, with implementation delayed until January 2026.
  This statement is correct. The article notes: “After the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft guidelines for gold loans last month, the Finance Ministry has suggested that loans below Rs 2 lakh be exempt from the tighter rules, and the norms come into effect only from January 1, 2026, to ensure proper implementation.” This proposal followed concerns raised by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin about the impact on poor and middle-class borrowers, indicating the government’s intent to balance regulation with accessibility for small borrowers.
• Statement 4: The RBI mandates that the aggregate weight of gold ornaments pledged for a loan can exceed 1 kilogram per borrower if the loan is for income-generating purposes.
  This statement is incorrect. The article clearly states: “The aggregate weight of either gold or silver ornaments pledged for loan shall not exceed 1 kilogram per borrower, the RBI says.” There is no exception mentioned in the article or related sources that allows exceeding this 1-kilogram limit for income-generating loans. The cap is designed to mitigate concentration risks and potential money-laundering concerns, applying uniformly to both consumption and income-generating loans.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1, 2, and 3
• Incorrect statement: 4

Thus, the correct option is (a) 1, 2, and 3 only.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/rbis-new-draft-rules-for-gold-loans-why-10041967/

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: The Valley of Flowers, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve and is renowned for its diverse alpine meadows hosting species like brahmakamal, which holds religious significance.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “Located in Chamoli district, the Valley of Flowers is a UNESCO World Heritage Site” and “The Valley of Flowers is located within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, spread over an area of 87 sqkm.” It further notes: “Flower species such as orchids, poppies, primulas, marigold, daisies and anemones can be found here. The valley also abounds in medicinal plants and herbs, and flowers with religious significance, such as the brahmakamal, offered to Nanda Devi.” This confirms the valley’s status, location, and the religious significance of brahmakamal, a flower offered to the goddess Nanda Devi.
• Statement 2: The valley was designated as a national park in 1982 due to ecological damage from mountaineering activities following the reopening of Nanda Devi for scaling in 1974.
  This statement is correct. The article explains: “The India-China war of 1962 led to the border between India and Tibet being closed off, but Nanda Devi was once again opened for scaling in 1974. The resultant crowds damaged the delicate ecology of the area, and in 1982, the region was declared a national park and closed off to visitors.” This directly attributes the 1982 national park designation to ecological damage caused by increased mountaineering after 1974.
• Statement 3: The Valley of Flowers is accessible to tourists year-round, with the best time to visit being July to September when most flowers bloom.
  This statement is incorrect. The article clearly states: “The Valley of Flowers in Uttarakhand opened to tourists for this year on June 1. The valley usually stays open for four months — June, July, August, and September — and closes sometime in October, as winter and snow make it dangerous for tourists at other times of the year.” This indicates that the valley is not accessible year-round, as it is closed from October to May due to harsh weather conditions. While the article confirms July to September as the best time for flower blooming, the year-round accessibility claim is factually inaccurate.
• Statement 4: The valley’s biodiversity includes rare wildlife such as the snow leopard and Himalayan weasel, and it serves as a transition zone between the Zanskar and Great Himalaya mountain ranges.
  This statement is correct. The article notes: “Situated at an altitude of around 3,600 m above the sea level, the valley is also home to such rare and amazing wildlife species like the gray langur, the flying squirrel, the Himalayan weasel, and black bear, the red fox, the lime butterfly, the snow leopard.” Additionally, it cites UNESCO: “The gentle landscape of the Valley of Flowers National Park complements the rugged mountain wilderness of Nanda Devi National Park. Together they encompass a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and Great Himalaya.” This confirms both the presence of rare wildlife, including the snow leopard and Himalayan weasel, and the valley’s role as a transition zone.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1, 2, and 4
• Incorrect statement: 3

Thus, the correct option is (a) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/valley-of-flowers-in-uttarakhand-open-june-1-all-you-need-to-know-10042170/

Answer: (d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: Uranium-235, a rare isotope, is critical for nuclear weapons due to its ability to sustain a chain reaction through induced fission.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “Uranium-235, an extremely rare isotope of the heavy metal uranium, is the most commonly used nuclear fuel, as it is one of the few elements that can undergo induced fission.” It further explains: “The fission of a U-235 atom produces about 2 to 3 new neutrons on average. If these new neutrons are then absorbed by other U-235 atoms, it creates an exponentially growing chain reaction.” This chain reaction is essential for nuclear weapons, which require uranium enriched to approximately 90% U-235, confirming the statement’s accuracy.
• Statement 2: The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) reported that Iran’s stockpile of uranium enriched to 60% is sufficient to produce a nuclear weapon without further enrichment.
  This statement is incorrect. The article notes: “According to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), as of May 17, Iran has accumulated 408.6 kilograms of uranium enriched up to 60 per cent—a 50 per cent rise from February’s 274.8 kilograms. This level is just a technical step away from the 90 per cent enrichment needed for nuclear weapons.” The phrase “just a technical step away” indicates that 60% enriched uranium still requires further enrichment to reach the 90% threshold necessary for weapons-grade material. Thus, Iran’s current stockpile is not sufficient to produce a nuclear weapon without additional enrichment.
• Statement 3: The Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) recognizes only the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom as nuclear-weapon states.
  This statement is correct. The article explains: “The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before January 1, 1967 – the US, Russia (formerly USSR), the UK, France and China – and effectively disallows any other state from acquiring nuclear weapons.” This confirms that the NPT recognizes only these five countries as nuclear-weapon states, excluding others like India, Pakistan, Israel, and North Korea, which possess nuclear weapons but are not NPT-recognized nuclear-weapon states.
• Statement 4: Enrichment facilities for nuclear power plants and nuclear weapons use identical equipment, posing challenges for non-proliferation efforts.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “Notably, the equipment needed to enrich fuel for nuclear power generations is the same as that needed to enrich it for a bomb — leading to one of the great challenges of enforcing nuclear non-proliferation.” This dual-use nature of enrichment technology complicates efforts to monitor and prevent the proliferation of nuclear weapons, as the same facilities can be repurposed for weapons-grade enrichment.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1, 3, and 4
• Incorrect statement: 2

Thus, the correct option is (d) 1, 3, and 4 only.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-uranium-enrichment-nuclear-technology-upsc-exam-10043253/

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: The Kokborok Sahitya Parishad has demanded the inclusion of Kokborok in the Eighth Schedule, proposing either Bengali or Devanagari as its script.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “Recently, in a letter to Tripura Chief Minister Dr Manik Saha, the Kokborok Sahitya Parishad sought the inclusion of the Kokborok language in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. The tribal literary body stated that the script for the Kokborok language can either be Bengali or Devanagari.” This directly confirms the demand and the proposed scripts.
• Statement 2: The Eighth Schedule initially included 14 languages, and the addition of Sindhi in 1967 brought the total to 15 languages.
  This statement is correct. The article notes: “As of May 2025, 22 languages have been classified under the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. Initially, however, the Eighth Schedule included 14 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya (renamed to Odia in 2011), Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.” It further states: “Sindhi was added through the 21st Amendment Act of 1967,” which increased the total to 15 languages at that time.
• Statement 3: Bhojpuri is recognized as a constitutional language in Mauritius and Nepal but not in India’s Eighth Schedule.
  This statement is correct. The article mentions: “Notably, earlier on International Mother Tongue Day (February 21), at Delhi’s Jantar Mantar, Dr Santosh Patel and a group of supporters gathered to demand the inclusion of Bhojpuri in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Spoken by millions of people across several countries, Bhojpuri holds constitutional status in both Mauritius and Nepal, but it remains constitutionally unrecognised in India.” This confirms Bhojpuri’s status abroad and its exclusion from India’s Eighth Schedule.
• Statement 4: The Sitakant Mohapatra Committee (2003) recommended that a language must have at least 10 million speakers to qualify for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
  This statement is incorrect. The article states: “The Sitakant Mohapatra Committee (2003) added more specific benchmarks. It recommended that a language must have at least 5 million speakers, based on census data from the previous three decades, to qualify as being spoken by a substantial population.” The requirement is 5 million speakers, not 10 million, making the statement factually inaccurate.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-bhojpuri-kokborok-eighth-schedule-of-constitution-upsc-10036576/

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: Calcified coronary artery disease results from the hardening of fatty plaques into calcium deposits within the coronary arteries, a process known as atherosclerosis.
  This statement is correct. The article explains: “Due to various risk factors… fatty deposits, known as plaques begin accumulating inside these tubes or blood vessels. This process is called atherosclerosis in medical terms. Over the years, such plaques harden themselves into calcium… This process leads to the formation of calcified coronary artery disease (cCAD).” This confirms that cCAD results from atherosclerosis, where fatty plaques harden into calcium deposits.
• Statement 2: Nodular calcium in cCAD is a significant risk factor for heart attacks due to its protrusion into the artery lumen.
  This statement is correct. The article states: “To a certain extent, such calcified coronary vessels are not dangerous as they do not lead to heart attacks frequently as compared to non-calcified, fat-rich blockages; however, one form of calcified CAD, known as nodular calcium, in which the calcium protrudes into the lumen and touches the blood, is a proven risk factor for heart attacks.” This directly supports the statement’s claim about nodular calcium’s risk.
• Statement 3: Coronary artery calcium (CAC) scoring using CT scans can definitively rule out coronary artery disease in young patients if no calcium is detected.
  This statement is incorrect. The article clarifies: “Though the presence of CAC proves CAD, the absence of CAC does not rule out CAD, especially in young patients.” This indicates that a negative CAC score does not definitively exclude CAD in younger individuals, as non-calcified plaques may still be present.
• Statement 4: Lifestyle modifications, such as controlling LDL cholesterol and maintaining physical activity, are critical for preventing calcified coronary artery disease.
  This statement is correct. The article emphasizes: “The best way to prevent Calcified CAD is to prevent CAD itself. The most important culprit for CAD is bad cholesterol (LDL). Keeping it low for a long time is a proven strategy for reducing CAD.” It also lists “reduced physical activity and poor eating habits” as risk factors, implying that maintaining physical activity and healthy eating are key preventive measures. Additionally, it concludes: “Putting your mind towards mindful eating with good exercise and controlling proven risk factors are the pillars of a healthy life,” reinforcing the role of lifestyle modifications.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/understanding-calcified-coronary-artery-disease-and-how-to-prevent-it/article69647756.ece

Answer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only

Detailed Explanation

Evaluation of Statements

• Statement 1: The SPMEPCI allows approved applicants to import electric four-wheelers with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years.
  This statement is correct. The press release states: “To encourage the global manufacturers to invest under the Scheme, the approved applicants will be allowed to import Completely Built-in Units (CBUs) of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at reduced customs duty of 15% for a period of 5 years from the Application Approval Date.” This is further supported by web sources detailing the scheme’s customs duty concessions.
• Statement 2: Applicants must achieve a minimum domestic value addition (DVA) of 50% within three years from the date of approval to qualify for the scheme’s benefits.
  This statement is incorrect. The press release specifies: “Minimum DVA of 25% to be achieved within 3 years and minimum DVA of 50% to be achieved within 5 years from date of issuance of approval letter by MHI/PMA.” The 50% DVA requirement applies within five years, not three years, making the statement factually inaccurate.
• Statement 3: A minimum investment of Rs. 4,150 crore is required, with up to 5% of this investment permissible for developing charging infrastructure.
  This statement is correct. The press release confirms: “Approved applicants would be required to make minimum investment of Rs. 4,150 crore in line with the provisions of the scheme.” It further notes: “Expenditure incurred on Charging Infrastructure would be considered up to maximum 5% of the committed investment.” This aligns with web sources mentioning the investment criteria and infrastructure allocation.
• Statement 4: The scheme mandates a bank guarantee equivalent to the total duty foregone or Rs. 4,150 crore, whichever is higher, to ensure compliance.
  This statement is correct. The press release states: “The Applicant’s commitment to setup manufacturing facility(ies), achievement of DVA and compliance with conditions stipulated under the Scheme shall be backed by a Bank Guarantee from a scheduled commercial bank in India equivalent to the total duty to be foregone, or Rs 4,150 crore, whichever is higher, during the scheme period.” This is reinforced by web sources detailing the bank guarantee requirement.

Conclusion

• Correct statements: 1, 3, and 4
• Incorrect statement: 2

Thus, the correct option is (c) 1, 3, and 4 only

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2133258