Question 1
Science and Tech | Metals
Live Mint
With respect to rare earth elements consider the following:
1. These elements have high density and high conductivity.
2. Rare Earth Elements are found in abundance in the Earth’s crust.
3. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act classified rare earths as critical minerals.
How many of the statements above are incorrect?
A) Only one statement is incorrect
B) Only two statements are incorrect
C) All the statements are incorrect
D) None of the statements are incorrect
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (D) None of the statements are incorrect
Detailed Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Rare Earth Elements (RREs), as defined by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) in 2005, are a group of 17 elements. These elements share similar properties such as high density and high conductivity. The 17 elements include 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium.
- Statement 2 is correct: The rare earth elements are not so rare. They are found in abundance in the Earth’s crust. However, they are rarely found in concentrations that are economically viable for mining. Therefore, extracting and processing REEs is complex and expensive, requiring high-end techniques and specialised labour to isolate and purify them.
- Statement 3 is correct: Monazite, the primary source of REEs in India, contains a high level of thorium, which is a radioactive material. Its extraction and processing are subject to strict regulatory control.
However, considering the significance of REEs, the government has taken several steps to enhance the domestic production of REEs. In 2023, the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, was amended, and Minerals of the “rare earths” group were classified as Critical Minerals.
In 2025, the government launched the National Critical Mineral mission with the objective of securing the critical mineral supply. India has also entered into agreements with countries such as Australia and the US to enhance partnerships on critical minerals.
Additional Information
- Rare Earth Elements (REEs), comprising 17 elements including 15 lanthanides, scandium, and yttrium, are vital for modern technologies like smartphones, defense equipment, and green energy solutions. Despite their abundance in the Earth’s crust, REEs are challenging to extract economically due to complex processing requirements. China dominates global REE production with 44 million metric tons in reserves, primarily from the Bayan Obo deposit, followed by Brazil and the US.
- India holds the fifth-largest reserves at 6.9 million metric tons, mainly in monazite sands in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha, and Kerala, but contributes less than 1% to global production due to limited private sector involvement, technological constraints, and environmental concerns related to thorium’s radioactivity.
- The Indian government has taken steps to boost REE production, including amending the Mines and Minerals Act in 2023 to classify REEs as Critical Minerals and launching the National Critical Mineral Mission in 2025 to secure supply chains. Scaling up production faces challenges like environmental pollution and inadequate infrastructure.
- Enhancing REE output could strengthen India’s role in clean energy, electronics, and defense, while sustainable practices like recycling could address supply gaps and environmental concerns.
Question 2
Polity | Parliament
The Hindu
With respect to Census in India, consider the following:
1. A constitutional amendment is required to increase the number of Lok Sabha seats.
2. The Delimitation committee can be headed by an incumbent or retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) 1 Only
Detailed Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: A constitutional amendment is required for the increase or decrease in the number of seats in the Lok Sabha. The Delimitation Committee based on the latest Census submits its report which is presented in the Parliament and hence sent to the President of India as per Article 82 of the Constitution of India. A majority of ⅔ rd members present and voting is required for the delimitation.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Delimitation Act, 2002 explicitly mentions that the delimitation commission shall consist of 3 members out of which a Retired Supreme Court Judge will chair the commission. It shall also consist of the Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner and the State Election Commissioner of the concerned State.
Additional Information:
- Article – 81 states that the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed 500 members from the states and 25 from the Union Territories to be elected by direct elections.
- Article – 82 fixed the number of seats in the Parliament till 2026 and states that the number of seats may or may not be re-adjusted but the data of census after 2026 will be pivotal and Parliament may or may not be required to readjust the number of seats.
- 31st Constitution Amendment 1973 replaced 500 members from states to 525 members and representatives from the UTs which were earlier 25 were changed to 20 members. This was done to readjust the population equally for all the constituencies as per the clause “proportional representation” and based on 1971 census data which showed significant increase in the Indian Population.
Question 3
Environment | Biosphere Reserves
Live Mint
With reference to Kaziranga Park, consider the following:
1. Kaziranga Park was formed on the recommendation of Mary Curzon.
2. It was declared as a World Heritage Site in 1980.
3. It was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2000.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only one statement is correct
B) Only two statements are correct
C) All the statements are correct
D) None of the statements are correct
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) Only one statement is correct
Detailed Explanation
Kaziranga National park is a 430 square kilometer area sprinkled with elephant-grass meadows, swampy lagoons, and dense forests is home to more than 2200 Indian one-horned rhinoceros, approximately 2/3rd of their total world population.
- Statement 1 is correct: Formed in 1908 on the recommendation of Mary Curzon, the park is located on the edge of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspots – Golaghat and Nagaon district.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: In the year 1985, the park was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. It is said when Mary Curzon, the wife of the Viceroy of India – Lord Curzon of Kedleston, visited the park to see Indian one-horned rhinoceros; she wasn’t able to found even one. Then she persuaded her husband to take urgent measures to protect the dwindling species which he did by initiating planning for their protection. After a series of meetings and documentations, the Kaziranga Proposed Reserve Forest was created with an area of 232 km2 (90 sq mi) in 1905.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Along with the iconic Greater one-horned rhinoceros, the park is the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer. Over time, the tiger population has also increased in Kaziranga, and that’s the reason why Kaziranga was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2006. Also, the park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species. Birds like lesser white-fronted goose, ferruginous duck, Baer’s pochard duck and lesser adjutant, greater adjutant, black-necked stork, and Asian Openbill stork specially migrate from Central Asia during the winter season.
Question 4
Polity | Constitutional Bodies
Live Mint
Consider the following with respect to the GST Council:
1. The GST council is a constitutional body.
2. The GST Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the States on issues related to principles of levy, principles that govern place of supply and threshold limits.
Which of the statements above is or are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) None of the above
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Detailed Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution Amendment Bill was passed by more than 15 States and received Hon’ble President’s assent on 8th of September, 2016 and has been enacted as the 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 conferring simultaneous power upon Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws governing goods and services tax and creation of Goods and Services Tax Council.
As per Article 279A(1) of the Constitution, the GST Council had to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of the Constitution (One Hundred and First) Amendment Act, 2016. The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th September, 2016 was issued on 10th September, 2016.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 279A(4), the GST Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the States on issues related to GST such as the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from GST, model GST Laws, principles of levy, principles that govern place of supply, threshold limits, GST rates including the floor rates with bands, special rates for raising additional resources during natural calamities/disasters, special provisions for certain States, etc.
Additional Information:
As per Article 279A(2) of the Constitution, the GST Council shall consist of the following members: –
a) The Union Finance Minister
b) The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance
c) The Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each State Government
d) Any person nominated by the Governor of the State where there is a proclamation of emergency under Article 356 of the Constitution of India.
Question 5
Geography | Transport and Communication
indian express
Consider the following pairs
1. NH 27 – Second longest highway in India
2. NH 44 – Longest Highway in India
3. NW 2 – Brahmaputra River
How many pairs are incorrect?
A) One only
B) Two only
C) All the three
D) None of the above
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (D) None of the above
Detailed Explanation
1. NH 27 – Second longest highway in India
2. NH 44 – Longest Highway in India
3. NW 2 – Brahmaputra River
Additional Information
NH 27 – It is an East – West National highway in India that starts in Porbandar and ends in Silchar, the highway passes through the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Assam.
NH-27 was laid and is maintained by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH). It is the second longest National Highway (after NH-44) in India and is a part of NS-EW Corridor of NHAI.
NH-44 National Highway 44 (NH 44) is a major north–south National Highway in India and is the longest in the country. It passes through the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, in addition to the states of Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
NW 2 – National Waterway 2 (NW2), also known as the Brahmaputra River, extends from Sadiya to Dhubri (Bangladesh border) in Assam, covering approximately 891 kilometers. It is a crucial inland waterway for the North East Region, facilitating connectivity with mainland India through the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol route.
Question 6
International Relations | International Organisations
the hindu
Consider the following statements with reference to BRICS:
1. The decision-making process is based on consensus.
2. BRICS Plus is a meeting between BRICS member countries and invited countries that are from the geographic region of the country currently holding the BRICS rotating presidency.
Which of the statements above is/are correct:
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) 1 Only
Detailed Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: There are two participation categories at the BRICS: members and partners. The eleven members – Brasil, China, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Indonesia, Iran, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, and the United Arab Emirates – participate in all meetings, where the decision-making process is based on consensus.
Statement 2 is incorrect: “BRICS Plus” is a meeting between BRICS member countries and invited countries that are not from the geographic region of the country currently holding the BRICS rotating presidency.
About
The BRICS is a group formed by eleven countries: Brasil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, United Arab Emirates, Ethiopia, Indonesia, and Iran. It serves as a political and diplomatic coordination forum for countries from the Global South and for coordination in the most diverse areas.
The acronym BRIC was conceived in 2001 by an economist from the Goldman Sachs investment bank in recognition of the dynamic economic growth of Brasil, Russia, India, and China.
As a cooperation and concertation forum, the BRIC was created by the political initiative of the governments of its founding countries. Its initial goal was to engage in dialogue about the major themes in the international agenda and politically strengthen their common stances in order to democratize, legitimize, and balance the global order.
Objectives
The objectives of BRICS include strengthening economic, political, and social cooperation among its members, as well as increasing the influence of Global South countries in international governance. The group seeks to improve the legitimacy, equity in participation, and efficiency of global institutions such as the UN, IMF, World Bank, and WTO. Moreover, it aims to bolster sustainable social and economic development and promote social inclusion.
Member Countries
The BRICS is currently composed of eleven countries: its five original members – Brasil, China, India, Russia, and South Africa -, and six new members admitted in 2024-25 – Egypt, Ethiopia, Indonesia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. The group was originally composed of Brasil, Russia, India, and China in 2006; South Africa adhered in 2011; the new expansion, effective as of 2024, derived from the Johannesburg Declaration, from August 2023.
Members and Partners
The discussion about the partner country modality resulted from the mandate established during the Johannesburg Declaration and its creation was announced at the Kazan Summit, in October 2024. Partners are generally invited to participate in the BRICS Chancellors and Leaders Summit; however, they can also be present in other meetings if there is consensus among the members.
Throughout 2024, over 30 countries expressed interest in participating in the BRICS, either as members or partners.
Other modalities of participation in BRICS meetings include the “BRICS Outreach“, launched by South Africa in 2013, and the “BRICS Plus”, launched by China in 2017.
“BRICS Outreach” is a meeting between BRICS member countries and those from the geographic region of the country currently holding the rotating presidency who have been invited to such meetings.
“BRICS Plus” is a meeting between BRICS member countries and invited countries that are not from the geographic region of the country currently holding the BRICS rotating presidency.
Question 7
Governance | Schemes
indian express
UMEED Portal stands for?
A) Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development
B) Unified Waqf Management, Exercise, Efficiency, and Diversification
C) Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Embodiment, and Development
D) None of the above
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development
Detailed Explanation
Constitutional and Legal Reforms
The Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 repeals the 1923 Mussalman Wakf Act, renaming the 1995 Act to emphasize governance efficiency. It mandates gender equality by reserving seats for Muslim women on Central/State Waqf Boards and safeguards female inheritance rights in waqf-alal-auladproperties. The Act introduces sectarian inclusivity, requiring representation from Shia, Sunni, Bohra, and Aghakhani communities on boards. However, it abolishes the waqf-by-user doctrine, risking disputes over orally donated properties.
Digital Governance and Transparency
The UMEED Portal (Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development) mandates centralized registration of all Waqf properties within six months, including geotagged details. This aims to curb corruption and ensure revenue is channeled toward community welfare. However, past digitization via the WAMSI portal faced inconsistencies, with 435,000 properties unaccounted for, highlighting implementation challenges.
Judicial and Administrative Mechanisms
The Act permits appeals against Waqf Tribunal rulings in High Courts within 90 days, strengthening judicial oversight. Over 40 petitions challenging the Act’s constitutionality are pending in the Supreme Court, with critics arguing it undermines Muslim autonomy under Article 26. The Centre has temporarily paused contentious clauses like non-Muslim board appointments pending judicial review.
Social Justice and Challenges
While promoting women’s empowerment through self-help groups and scholarships, the Act faces criticism for potential misuse in targeting Muslim properties. The digital divide in rural areas and cybersecurity risks in centralized data management remain unresolved.
Question 8
International Relations | International Organisations
indian express
With reference to the Asian Development Bank, consider the following:
1. Asian Development Bank was established in 1966.
2. ADB is owned by 50 members
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
A) 1 Only
B) 2 Only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) 1 Only
Detailed Explanation
ADB is a leading multilateral development bank supporting inclusive, resilient, and sustainable growth across Asia and the Pacific.
Working with its members and partners to solve complex challenges together, ADB harnesses innovative financial tools and strategic partnerships to transform lives, build quality infrastructure, and safeguard our planet.
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect: Founded in 1966, ADB is owned by 69 members—50 from the region.
Origins
ADB was conceived in the early 1960s as a financial institution that would be Asian in character and foster economic growth and cooperation in one of the poorest regions in the world.
A resolution passed at the first Ministerial Conference on Asian Economic Cooperation held by the United Nations Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East in 1963 set that vision on the way to becoming reality.
The Philippines capital of Manila was chosen to host the new institution, which opened on 19 December 1966, with 31 members that came together to serve a predominantly agricultural region. Takeshi Watanabe was ADB’s first President. During the 1960s, ADB focused much of its assistance on food production and rural development.
Members: From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 69 members—of which 50 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
Question 9
Governance | Schemes
press information bureau
Consider the following pairs:
1. National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) – 2016
2. Smart Cities Mission – 2015
3. Unified Pension Scheme – 2022
How many pairs are incorrectly matched?
A) One pair is incorrectly matched
B) Two pairs are incorrectly matched
C) Three pairs are incorrectly matched
D) All pairs are correctly matched
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) One pair is incorrectly matched
Detailed Explanation
1. National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) – 2016 (Correct)
2. Smart Cities Mission – 2015 (Correct)
3. Unified Pension Scheme – 2025
Additional Information
1. National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) – National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS)
The revival of apprenticeships under NAPS made ‘learning while earning’ a reality for lakhs of young Indians. Over 40 lakh apprentices were placed with industries since 2016, with monthly stipends directly credited into their accounts. The scheme helped bridge the gap between classroom learning and workplace expectations. It also gave employers a steady stream of trained talent, strengthening India’s industrial base from the ground up.
2. Smart Cities Mission – Smart Cities Mission
Launched on 25 June 2015, the Smart Cities Mission gave Indian cities a new life. It reimagined how people live, move, work and spend their time. By 2025, 93 percent of the 7545 approved projects were completed, with a total investment of over ₹1.51 lakh crore. Each of the 100 Smart Cities now runs an Integrated Command and Control Centre. These centres support better safety, traffic control, waste collection and water management.
Over 83,000 CCTV cameras, 1,884 emergency call boxes and 3,000 public address systems now help cities stay alert and responsive. More than 1,200 public space projects have brought back life to city parks, lakefronts and markets. Education has improved with 9,400 smart classrooms in 2,300 government schools and 41 new digital libraries. Health infrastructure got a push too with 3,100 hospital beds added and digital health records introduced in 15 cities.
On the housing front, 23 smart cities delivered 35,000 affordable homes. Water supply, solid waste and sewerage systems were upgraded using smart technology. Transport became smoother with 1,700 km of smart roads, 713 km of cycling lanes, 23,000 bicycles and over 1,500 buses added to public fleets. More than 50 cities turned to Public-Private Partnerships to deliver over 200 high-impact projects.
3. Unified Pension Scheme – Unified Pension Scheme
In a major step to strengthen social security for government employees and their families, the Union Cabinet approved the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) on August 24, 2024. The scheme ensures an assured pension of 50% of the average basic pay drawn during the last 12 months before retirement, applicable to employees with at least 25 years of service. For those with shorter service tenures, the pension will be calculated proportionately, with a minimum qualifying period of 10 years. A minimum assured pension of ₹10,000 per month will be provided upon retirement after completing 10 years of service. In case of the employee’s death, their family will receive a pension equal to 60% of the assured pension.
The Unified Pension Scheme came into effect from April 1, 2025, and it is expected to benefit around 23 lakh Central Government employees. Several State Governments have also adopted this model, extending its coverage to over 90 lakh individuals currently under the National Pension System.
Question 10
Governance | Schemes
press information bureau
With respect to the Chenab Railway Bridge, consider the following:
1. ‘Tekla’ software was used for structural detailing of the bridge.
2. It is a key part of the Udhampur Srinagar Baramulla Railway Link
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
A) Both the statements are correct
B) Statement 1 is correct
C) Statement 2 is correct
D) None of the statements are correct
Solution & Detailed Explanation
Answer: (A) Both the statements are correct
Detailed Explanation
Chenab Rail Bridge
Statement 2 is correct: Towering 359 metres above the riverbed, the Chenab Rail Bridge stands as the world’s highest railway arch bridge. It rises 35 metres higher than the Eiffel Tower. Spanning 1,315 metres, this steel arch structure is a key part of the Udhampur Srinagar Baramulla Railway Link and marks a significant milestone in Indian engineering.
Designed to endure harsh terrain and extreme weather, the bridge can withstand wind speeds of up to 260 kilometres per hour and is built to last 120 years. With a project cost of ₹1,486 crore, it is not just a bridge but a symbol of India’s technical prowess. Structural steel suitable for temperatures ranging from minus 10 to 40 degrees Celsius has been used, ensuring resilience across seasonal extremes.
Statement 1 is correct: The most sophisticated ‘Tekla’ software was used for structural detailing, enabling high precision in design and execution.
A key impact of the bridge will be in enhancing connectivity between Jammu and Srinagar. With the Vande Bharat Express running over it, travel time between Katra and Srinagar will come down to just about three hours, reducing the existing journey by two to three hours.